SET Biotechnology MCQ - PG Level Questions 41-50

41. The time required to kill 90% of the microorganisms or spores in a sample under specified conditions is

A) L value 

B) D value 

C) K value 

D) M value

42. Choose the correct statement about T lymphocytes:

A) Both CD4 and CD8 glycoproteins are expressed on the surface of all T lymphocytes

B) T cells displaying CD4 generally functions as TH cells, whereas those displaying CD8 generally functions as Tc cells

C) T cells displaying CD4 generally functions as TC cells, whereas those displaying CD8 generally functions as TH cells

D) Neither CD4 nor CD8 is expressed on T lymphocytes

43. Choose the correct statements:

1) TH cells are class II MHC restricted and Tc cells are class I MHC restricted

2) TH cells are class I MHC restricted and Tc cells are class II MHC restricted

3) All nucleated cells express class II MHC molecules and expression of class I MHC molecule is limited to antigen-presenting cells

4) All nucleated cells express class I MHC molecules and expression of class II MHC molecule is limited to antigen-presenting cells

A) Only 1 & 3 

B) Only 2 & 3 

C) Only 1 & 4 

D) Only 2 & 4

44. Choose the statements which are correct about monoclonal antibody:

1) They are specific for a single epitope

2) Comprises a mixture of antibodies, each specific for a particular epitope, produced from a variety of B-cell clones

3) It is easy to purify monoclonal antibody from polyclonal antibody preparation

4) Have research, diagnostic and therapeutic applications

A) Only 1 & 4 

B) Only 1, 2 & 4 

C) Only 1 & 3 

D) All are correct

45. The drug, aminopterin, in the HAT medium blocks ------.

A) DNA repair mechanism 

B) Cell-cell fusion

C) Nucleotide synthesis 

D) Antibody production

46. A patient with myasthenia gravis disease produce auto-antibodies that bind with:

A) Histone proteins 

B) Acetylcholine receptor

C) TSH receptor 

D) Fc region of IgG

47. The method that can be employed effectively to analyse the diffusion rate of membrane proteins:

A) Patching and capping 

B) Immuno diffusion

C) FRAP 

D) Patch-clamp

48. Individual variations in response to a drug are responsible for the high failure rates of new drug molecules at the clinical trial stage. What might be the reason for this individual variation?

A) Variations in the structure of the target molecule

B) Differences in the way that a particular drug is adsorbed and distributed

C) Differences in their metabolism and excretion

D) All of the above

49. After a certain dosage level of the drug, any further increase in the dosage of the drug, shows no additional effect. This is known as-----.

A) Ceiling effect

B) Null effect

C) Threshold effect

D) Dose effect

50. Resistance of a population to the infection and pathogen spread due to the immunity among the large percentage of the population is called:

A) Passive immunity

B) Acquired immunity

C) Secondary immunity

 D) Herd immunity

Answers:

41. B) D value 

42. B) T cells displaying CD4 generally functions as TH cells, whereas those displaying CD8 generally functions as Tc cells

43. C) Only 1 & 4 

44. A) Only 1 & 4 

45. C) Nucleotide synthesis 

46. B) Acetylcholine receptor

47. C) FRAP 

48. D) All of the above

49. A) Ceiling effect

50.  D) Herd immunity

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Biotechnology SET MCQ Questions 31-40

31. The absorption coefficient of a protein at 600nm is 12000 M-1 cm-1 . What is the absorbance of 1mg/ml (4.5 X 10-5 M) solution across a 1-cm path length?

A) 0.870 B) 0.720 C) 0.540 D) 0.420

32. Assertion(A): Phosphoenolpyruvate has a high phosphoryl-transfer potential

Reason (R) : The phosphoryl group traps the molecule in its unstable enol form

A) A and R are correct and R is the reason for A

B) A is correct and R is wrong

C) A is wrong but R is correct

D) A and R are wrong

33. If glucose is labelled with 14C at C-6, where we can find the radioactive label after oxidative phase of pentose phosphate pathway

A) C-2 of ribulose 5- phosphate 

B) C-1 of ribulose 5- phosphate

C) C-5 of ribulose 5- phosphate 

D) C-6 of ribulose 5- phosphate

34. Assertion (A) : Treatment of carbonic anhydrase with high concentrations of EDTA  results in loss of enzyme activity

Reason(R) : EDTA will bind and remove Mg2+, which is required for Carbonic anhydrace enzyme activity

A) A and R are true and R is the reason for A

B) A and R are true and R is not the reason for A

C) A is true but R is false

D) A and R are false

35. Choose the correct statements about noncompetitive inhibition of enzymes

1) An inhibitor and a substrate can bind simultaneously to an enzyme

2) KM is unchanged

3) Can be overcome by increasing the substrate concentration

4) Vmax is increased

A) Only 1,3 & 4 are correct 

B) Only 1 & 2 are correct

C) Only 1 & 4 are correct 

D) Only 1, 2 & 4 are correct

36. Psychrophiles are organisms that grow at:

A) high salt concentration 

B) high sugar concentration

C) low temperature 

D) low humidity

37. Vesicular-Arbuscular Mycorrhizae(VAM) is found in ------.

A) Plant roots

B) Tooth lichens

C) AIDS and other immunodeficiency conditions

D) Phylloplane

38. Which of the following is a tissue specific macrophage?

A) Osteoclasts B) Osteoblasts C) Melanocytes D) Dendritic cells

39. The Papain enzyme digestion of IgG will yield:

A) Two Fab fragments and one Fc fragment

B) One Fab fragment and two Fc fragments

C) One Fab fragment and one Fc fragment

D) Two heavy chains and two light chains

40. A complete virus particle, consisting of one or more molecules of DNA or RNA enclosed in a coat protein, is called a ------.

A) Viroid B) Virion C) Virusoid D) Prion

Answers:

31. C) 0.540 

32. A) A and R are correct and R is the reason for A

33. C) C-5 of ribulose 5- phosphate 

34. C) A is true but R is false

35. B) Only 1 & 2 are correct

36. C) low temperature 

37. A) Plant roots

38. A) Osteoclasts 

39. A) Two Fab fragments and one Fc fragment

40. B) Virion 

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Biotechnology MCQ- SET Biotech Questions 21-30

21. Maximum number of voltage gated calcium channels can be found at:

A) postsynaptic membrane of an electrical synapse

B) presynaptic membrane of an electrical synapse

C) postsynaptic membrane of a chemical synapse

D) presynaptic membrane of a chemical synapse

22. ‘HeLa’ is a well-known-----used in research labs.

A) High Efficiency Low particle filter

B) First continuous fed fermenter

C) Thermopolymerase

D) Cell line

23. Find the weakest interaction among the following:

A) Covalent bonding 

B) Hydrogen bonding

C) Electrostatic attractions 

D) Van der Waals attractions

24. The proteins which help in the process of fusion of the transport vesicle to target

membrane and cargo delivery is:

A) Agglutinin B) CRP C) SNARE D) HRP

25. Triglycerides serve as major energy reservoir because they are-----.

A) Oxidized and anhydrous 

B) Reduced and hydrated

C) Reduced and anhydrous 

D) Oxidized and hydrated

26. When the outermost high energy phosphate bond in ATP is hydrolysed under standard conditions, the energy released is equal to-----.

A) 7.3 kcal/mole B) 21.9 kcal/mole   C) 7.3 J/mole D) 21.9 J/mole

27. Match Group I with Group II

 Group I                                                 Group II

a. Bt gene                                       1. Golden rice

b. ߚ- carotene biosynthetic genes 2. Insect resistance

c. ACC deaminase                        3. Herbicide resistance

d. EPSP synthase                          4. Fruit ripening

A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 

B) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

C) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4 

D) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

28. Choose the statements about glycolysis:

1. Total of 4 ATP produced per one fructose 1,6-diphosphate

2. Total of 2 ATP produced per one fructose 1,6-diphosphate

3. The phosphorylation step of glucose is reversible in liver cells

4. In liver the phosphorylation of glucose is promoted by Glucokinase

A) Only 1 is correct 

B) Only 2 and 4 are correct

C) Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct 

D) Only1, 3 and 4 are correct

29. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Each myofibril is composed of myosin and actin filaments at a ratio of 1:2

2. The light bands in the myofibrils contain only actin filaments and thus called A bands

3. The ends of the myosin filaments are attached to a Z disk

4. The part of the myofibril that comes between two successive Z disks is call a Sarcomere

A) 1, 2 and 3 only are correct 

B) 1 and 4 only are correct

C) Only 1 and 2 are correct 

D) Only 4 is correct

30. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and Reason (r).

Assertion (A): Glycine is the highly conserved amino acid residue in the evolution of proteins

Reason (R) : Glycine has the smallest side chain of any amino acids

A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A

B) A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A

C) A and R are false

D) A is false but R is true

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21. D) presynaptic membrane of a chemical synapse

22. D) Cell line

23. D) Van der Waals attractions

24. C) SNARE

25. C) Reduced and anhydrous 

26. A) 7.3 kcal/mole

27. B) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

28. D) Only1, 3 and 4 are correct

29. B) 1 and 4 only are correct

30. A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A

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P G Level Biotechnology MCQ - SET Biotechnology Questions and Answers 11-20

11. The map generated by interrupted conjugation is marked off in units of

A) Frequency of mutation

 B) Average number of crossing over

C) Length of DNA transferred 

D) Time required for transfer

12. Choose the statements which is/are true?

1. If two transposons in opposite orientation on the same chromosome pair and cross over, the segments between them will be inverted

2. If two transposons in the same orientation on the same chromosome pair and cross over, the segments between them will be deleted

3. If two transposons in opposite orientation on the same chromosome pair and cross over, the segments between them will be deleted

4. If two transposons in the same orientation on the same chromosome pair and cross over, the segments between them will be inverted

A) 1&4 

B) 1&2 

C) 2 & 3 

D) 1 only

13. In a randomly mating population, a gene P has three alleles, P1, P2, and P3 with frequencies 0.2, 0.3 and 0.5 respectively. The combined frequencies of all heterozygote in this population are:

A) 2 B) 1 C) 0.03 D) 0.62

14. Haemophilia is caused by X-linked recessive allele. In a particular population the frequency of males with Haemophilia is 1/5000. Calculate the expected frequency of females with Haemophilia:

A) 0.0002 B) (0.0002)2 C) 0.0004 D) 0.0001

15. Immediately after the synthesis of mRNA:

A) Methyl guanosine is added to 5’ end and Poly (A) tail is added to 3’ end of mRNA

B) Methyl guanosine is added to 3’ end and Poly (A) tail is added to 5’ end of mRNA

C) Methyl cytosine is added to 3’ end and Poly (A) tail is added to 5’ end of mRNA

D) None of the above reactions will happen

16. Choose the statements which is/are correct about protein glycosylation:

1) The N-linked glycosylation begins in the ER and continues in the Golgi-complex

2) The N-linked glycosylation takes place exclusively in the Golgi-complex

3) The O-linked glycosylation begins in the ER and continues in the Golgi-complex

4) The O-linked glycosylation takes place exclusively in the Golgi-complex

A) 1 only B) 2 & 3 C) 4 only D) 1 & 4

17. During cancer treatment hair loss is a common. The reason behind this is:

1) Skin is comparatively more vascularized than other tissues

2) The therapeutic agent is a keratin inhibitor

3) The therapeutic agent inhibits the proliferating cells in the hair

4) The therapeutic agent activates new hair formation

A) Only 1 is correct 

B) Only 2 & 3 are correct

C) Only 3 is correct 

D) Only 3 & 4 are correct

18. Slow-twitch (type I fibers) are thinner, with a denser capillary web, and appear red owing to the existence of a great amount of-----.

A) Myoglobin

 B) Haemoglobin

C) Low glycogen levels 

D) High mitochondrial numbers

19. When freshly isolated intact mitochondria were incubated with ADP and inorganic phosphate neither the oxygen consumption nor the ATP synthesis could be detected. Addition of succinate resulted in increased oxygen consumption as well as ATP synthesis with time. Subsequent addition of cyanide to this system will result in whichone of the following?

A) Both oxygen consumption and ATP synthesis are inhibited

B) Oxygen consumption continues but ATP synthesis is inhibited

C) Oxygen consumption is inhibited but ATP synthesis continues

D) Both oxygen consumption and ATP synthesis continue

20. Saccharose is a synonym for------.

A) Glucose B) Sucrose C) Fructose D) Starch

Learn more: Biotechnology MCQ Topic wise

Answers:

11. D) Time required for transfer 

12. B) 1&2 

13. D) 0.62

14. B) (0.0002)2 

15. A) Methyl guanosine is added to 5’ end and Poly (A) tail is added to 3’ end of mRNA

16. D) 1 & 4

17. C) Only 3 is correct 

18. A) Myoglobin

19. A) Both oxygen consumption and ATP synthesis are inhibited

20. B) Sucrose

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SET Biotechnology Questions and Answers (Questions 1-10) | PG Level Biotechnology Questions

1. The symbol ‘S’ associated with 40S and 60S ribosome parts stands for

A) Size B) Subunit C) Siemens D) Svedbergs

2. Choose the statement which is NOT true about cancer stem cells (CSCs):

A) Epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) may enhance CSC metastasis.

B) miRNAs are involved in the regulation of CSCs properties.

C) CSCs play important roles in cancer relapse and metastasis.

D) The characteristics of CSCs are different from normal cells.

3. The enzyme responsible for removing the primers after the complementary strand of DNA has been synthesized:

A) DNA polymerase  B) RNAse H C) Primase D) Helicase

4. A pseudogene is:

A) a gene with no exons

B) a DNA sequence with numerous mutations and their expression product inhibit the function of a normal gene product

C) a DNA sequence resembling a functional gene but containing numerous mutations that prevent its expression

D) a gene that express a protein that cannot fold properly and consequently unable function

5. Match Group I with Group II

Group I                            Group II

a) Nalidixic acid        1. RNA polymerase

b) Tetracycline           2. DNA gyrase

c) Erythromycin         3. DNA polymerase

d) Rifampin                4. 50S ribosomal submit

                                    5. Aminoacyl tRNA

A) a-3, b-4, c-5, d-1 

B) a-5, b-1, c-4, d-2

C) a-2, b-5, c-4, d-1 

D) a-2, b-5, c-1, d-4

6. In almost all mammalian cells, glucose transport occurs by

A) Active transport 

B) Facilitated Diffusion

C) Simple diffusion 

D) None of the above

7. A Phage stores its genetic information in single-stranded DNA. When DNA was extracted and analysed from this virus particles, 29 percent of bases were found to be Adenosine residues. What percentage of the bases in this DNA were Guanosine residues?

A) 21 B) 29 C) 50 D) cannot determine from this information

8. Which one of the following is known as Kornberg’s enzyme?

A) DNA polymerase III B) DNA polymerase II C) DNA polymerase I D) DNA polymerase V

9. The fluidity of a phospholipid membrane increases when the fatty acid:

A) Chain length increases and degree of unsaturation decreases

B) Chain length decreases and degree of unsaturation increases

C) Chain length decreases and degree of unsaturation decreases

D) Chain length increases and degree of unsaturation increases

10. A technique used to follow the movements of molecules in the membrane of living cells:

A) NGS  B) SDS-PAGE C) FRAP  D) X-ray Crystallography

Learn more: Biotechnology MCQ Topic wise

Answers

1. D) Svedbergs

2. D) The characteristics of CSCs are different from normal cells.

3. B) RNAse H 

4. C) a DNA sequence resembling a functional gene but containing numerous mutations that prevent its expression

5. C) a-2, b-5, c-4, d-1 (Mode of Action of Inhibitors)

6. B) Facilitated Diffusion (Membrane Transport)

7. D) cannot determine from this information

8. C) DNA polymerase I 

9. B) Chain length decreases and degree of unsaturation increases (Membrane Fluidity) 

10. C) FRAP

• FRAP stands for Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching

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What are the 4 levels of Protein Structure?

Primary, Secondary, tertiary and Quaternery structure of protein

Proteins are biopolymers made of amino acids joined by peptide bond.

This 8 minute video will give you an overall concept about protein structure

Primary Structure

• Primary Structure is the unique linear sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bond in a polypeptide chain or amino acid sequence structure

• It has an amino-terminal end and the carboxyl-terminal end.
• It refers to the sequence order and no. of amino acids

Secondary Structure

• Regular, ordered repeated folding of the polypeptide chain by H bonding between adjacent folds
• 2 most common : Alpha Helix structure and Beta pleated sheets

Alpha helix: 

• It is the right handed helical coiling formed by H bond btw adjacent coils (N-H….O=C)
• The carbonyl O of one amino acid and the amino H of another.
• 3.6 amino acid residues per turn eg: myoglobin

Beta pleated sheets: 

Two or more segments called beta stands of a polypeptide chain in same direction (parallel) or opposite direction (anti parallel) line up next to each other, forming a sheet-like structure held together by hydrogen bonds. Eg: Silk fibroin

Tertiary Structure

• The tertiary structure of a protein refers to the overall three-dimensional arrangement of its polypeptide chain in space.

• Biologically active confirmation stabilized by disulphide bond, hydrophobic interactions, vanderwaals forces, ionic interactions other than peptide bond and hydrogen bond

Quaternary structure exists in proteins with two or more identical or different polypeptide chains (subunits). It refers to the number and the arrangement of subunits that form a protein.

It is stabilized by disulphide bond, hydrophobic interactions, vanderwaals forces, ionic interactions other than peptide bond and hydrogen bond.

Hemoglobin is made up of 4 polypeptide chains-2 alpha chain and 2 beta chains; thus exhibiting the quaternery structure

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What is Glycosidic Bond in DNA and RNA?

 In DNA, Glycosidic Bond, N-C linkage connects Sugar with Nitrogenous base.

The C1 of deoxyribose forms β-N-Glycosidic bond with nitrogen-9‘ of purine (Adenine and Guanine) bases or with nitrogen-1 of pyrimidine (Thymine and Cytosine or Uracil in RNA) bases

It is called beta as the OH in first C deoxyribose is above the plane.

This 2 minute video will explain How glycosidic bond is formed in DNA?

As water is removed during the reaction, the reaction is called dehydration condensation reaction.

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pUC Vector: Features, Selectable markers, Blue White Screening for Selection of Recombinants using pUC Vector

 What is a pUC vector?

• Vector obtained by modifying pBR 322 vector
• Smaller in size 2686bp with high copy number
• ‘p’=plasmid “UC”: University of California
• Joachim Messing and co-workers (1983)
  
  
  

Regions:

1. Ori: E.coli origin

2 selectable markers: ampicillin (amp ^r)& lacZ’ gene

 This region has genes providing resistance against ampicillin,

LacZ’ codes for β Galactosidase enzyme

3. Restriction sites: lacZ’ gene with multiple cloning sites for 13 Restriction enzymes

Selection of recombinant colonies using Blue White colony screening

After transformation, 3  types of colonies

Grow in a medium containing Agar+Ampicillin + Xgal+IPTG

IPTG is an inducer of Beta galactosidase enzyme. It binds to the repressor activates beta galactosidase transcription

1)    Non-transformed: without vector: Cannot grow in Amp containing medium

     2) Transformed:

a) Transformed with non recombinant: Can grow in Amp medium, Active LacZ gene so can  convert X gal into blue product

    b)Transformed with  recombinant vector : can grow in Amp medium. Lac Z gene is  inactive by insertional inactivation. It is the inactivation of a gene upon insertion of our gene of interest. It cannot convert X gal to Blue product

Recombinant Colonies: White as LacZ gene is inactive by insertional inactivation

Non Recombinant: Blue Colonies LacZ gene is active, the galactosidase formed will convert  Xgal into blue product

This recombinant selection procedure is called Blue White Colony Screening.

Advantages of pUC vector

• High copy number 500-600 copies per cell
• Easy one step selection of recombinant colonies
• Many restriction sites in MCS (Multiple Cloning Sites)

Disadvantage

• Insert size is 15 Kb

Learn More: Insertional-inactivation-in-pBR322
Ideal Characteristics of Gene Cloning Vector

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