1. Which of the following is true about kinetic effect of competitive inhibition?
A) Decrease Km without affecting Vmax
B) Increases Km without affecting Vmax
C) Decreases both Km and Vmax
D) Increases both Km and Vmax
2. The amino acid abundantly found in collagen:
A) Methionine B) Glycine
C) Tryptophan D) Glutamic acid
3. The primary function of Golgi apparatus in eukaryotic
cells is:
A) Protein synthesis
B) Lipid synthesis
C) Modification and packing of proteins
D) Beta oxidation of fatty acids
4. Assertion (A) : Fatty acids with an odd number of carbon atoms can be fully oxidized through beta-oxidation.
Reason (R) : The final product of beta-oxidation acetyl- CoA, can be incorporated into the citric acid cycle regardless of the carbon atom number.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) R is true, but A is false
5. Glutathione is a :
A) Polypeptide B) Tripeptide
C) Oligopeptide D) Glycoprotein
6. Assertion (A) : Genetic drift has more significant impact
on small populations in
disrupting the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium compared to large
populations.
Reason (R) : In smaller populations, chance events can lead
to random
fluctuations in
allele frequencies.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) Both A and R are false
7. In a clinical trial, if a researcher fails to reject the
null hypothesis when it is false,
what type of error is made?
A) Type I error B) Type II error
C) Sampling error D) Measurement error
8. The enzyme responsible for the conversion of citrate to
isocitrate in TCA cycle:
A) Citrate synthase B) Succinyl CoA synthetase
C) Aconitase D) Isocitrate dehydrogenase.
9. Identity the autosomal dominant disorders:
1. Huntington’s chorea 2. Cystic fibrosis
3. Myotonic dystrophy 4. Sickle cell anemia
A) 1& 2 only B)
1& 3 only C) 2 & 4 only D) 1, 2, 3 & 4
10. Identify the incorrect option about penetrance is 100% :
A) All recessive genotype shows one phenotype
B) The expressivity is 100%
C) All dominant genotypes have a different phenotype
D) All the heterozygotes have similar phenotype
11. Pink pages in red data book represent:
A) Extinct animals B) Critically endangered animals
C) Threatened animals D) Extinct deep sea animals
12. Monocondylic skull is found in:
1. Amphibians 2. Reptiles 3. Aves 4. Mammals
A) 1 & 2 only B) 2& 3 only C) 3& 4 only D) 3
only
13. When an animal learns to perform certain functions in
response to many indifferent
stimuli but without any apparent reward or punishment, it is
called:
A) Insight learning B) Trial and error learning
C) Latent learning D) None of these
14. Male induction of estrous is called:
A) Vanderbergh effect B) Bruce effect
C) Whitten effect D) McClintock effect
15. Neoplilina galathea belongs to:
A) Scaphopoda B) Gastropoda
C) Monoplacophora D) Amphineura
16. Identify the correct options about Bence Jones protein:
1. Presence of Bence Jones protein in urine indicates
Multiple myeloma
2. Bence Jones proteins are derived from gamma globulins
3. Bence Jones protein is derived from alpha globulin
A) 1 only B) 1& 2 only C) 3 only D) 1, 2 & 3
17. A group of co-existing species which share a common
niche is called:
A) Deme B) Subspecies C) Guild D) Race
18. Assertion (A): Recombination frequency never exceeds 50%
but map distance
can exceed 50
centiMorgans.
Reason ( R): The genes that are 50 map unit or apart, will
behave as if they
are independent of
one another.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) Both A and R are false
19. Species which are morphologically identical but do not
interbreed are called:
A) Subspecies B) Sibling species
C) Polytypic species D) Allopatric species
20. Organisms that can tolerate narrow range of temperature
are called:
A) Stenothermal B) Ectotherms
C) Endothermal D) Eurythermal
21. Cydippid is the larval stage of :
A) Porifera B) Cnidaria C) Ctenophora D) Platyhelminthes
22. Lakshadweep is :
A) Atoll B) Fringing reef C) Barrier reef D) Oceanic islands
23. Which of the following are free swimming larvae:
1. Miracidium 2. Sporocyst 3. Redia
4. Cercaria 5. Metacercaria
A) 1 & 4 only B) 3 & 4 only C) 1 & 3 only D) 3,
4 & 5 only
24. Camel belongs to the order:
A) Chiroptera B) Artiodactyla C) Cetacea D) Perissodacyla
25. Identify the correct sequence of evolution of horse:
1. Pliohippus 2. Meryhippus 3. Eohippus
4. Equus 5. Mesohippus
A) 3-5-2-1-4 B) 1-3-5-4-2 C) 2-1-3-5-4 D) 5-2-1-3-4
26. Which following biogeographical realm includes India?
A) Neotropical B) Oriental C) Palearctic D) Nearctic
27. The 60S subunit of ribosome contains:
1. 5S rRNA 2. 5.8S rRNA 3. 28S rRNA 4. 16S rRNA
A) 1,2& 3 only B) 1& 4 only C) 2,3&4 only D) 1,
2, 3 & 4
28. How does nuclear pore complex discriminate between
different molecules during
transport?
1. Size exclusion 2. Charge-based selection
3. Recognition by specific transport receptors 4. Lipid
solubility
A) 1 only B) 2 only C) 1,2 &3 only D) 1, 2, 3 & 4
29. Ecdysone is secreted by:
A) Prothoracic gland B) Corpora allata
C) Corpora cardiac D) None of these
30. The amino acids known as semi-indispensible:
1. Glutamic acid 2. Arginine 3. Methionine 4. Histidine
A) 1,2 & 3 only B) 2 & 4 only C) 3 &4 only D)
1,2,3 & 4
31. The receptors for vibrations and deep pressure are:
A) Meissner’s corpuscles B) Pacinian corpuscles
C) Krause end bulbs D) None of these
32. In cellulose D- glucose molecules are held together by:
A) Beta 1,4 glycosidic bond B) Alpha 1,4 glycosidic bond
C) Beta 1,6 glycosidic bond D) Alpha 1,6glycosidic bond
33. Which among the following are polysaturated fatty acids?
1. Linoleic acid 2. Arachidonic acid
3. Palmitic acid 4. Stearic acid
A) 1 & 3 only B) 1 &2 only C) 3 & 4 only D) 1,
2& 4 only
34. The compounds having
1,2-cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene nuclei are called :
A) Steroids B) Prostaglandins
C) Cephalins D) Glycolipids
35. Low Km value indicates:
A) High substrate affinity B) Low substrate affinity
C) High reaction rate D) Low reaction rate
36. The vitamin which is an antioxidant and plays a role in
maintaining the health of the
skin and mucous membrane?
A) Vitamin A B) Vitamin B C) Vitamin E D) Vitamin K
37. How does the body repay muscle oxygen debt after intense
exercise?
A) Increased oxygen intake through breathing.
B) Increased heart rate
C) Continued anaerobic metabolism
D) All of these
38. In constructing phylogenetic trees using molecular data,
what does a longer branch
length typically indicate?
A) Greater genetic similarity
B) More recent common ancestry
C) Faster molecular evolution
D) Slower evolutionary rates.
39. In alloenzyme polymorphism studies, how are variations
in enzymes typically
identified?
A) Density gradient centrifugation
B) DNA sequence analysis
C) Gene expression profiling
D) Electrophoretic mobility
40. How does the sex index in Drosophila relate to the genes
responsible for sex
determination?
A) It reflects the activity of sex-determining genes on
autosomes
B) It indicates the presence of sex-linked genes on the
X-chromosomes
C) It correlates with the number of genes of the Y
chromosome
D) It is independent of the genetic basis of sex
determination
41. Assertion (A): Allopolyploidy among animals is extremely
rare.
Reason ( R) : Allopolyploidy involves the condition of
chromosomes sets from
different species and
the reproductive barriers between animal species
typically prevent the
occurrence of allopolyploid individuals.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
C) A is true, but R is false
D) R is true, but A is false
42. What is the significance of telomerase in relation to
aging and cellular senescence?
A) Telomerase accelerates aging by promoting cell division
B) Telomerase prevents aging by repairing cellular damage
C) Telomerase has no impact on aging process
D) Telomerase helps maintain telomere length, slowing down
the aging process
43. The primary function of desmosomes in cells is to:
A) Provide structural support and mechanical strength by
anchoring adjacent
cells together
B) Facilitate communication and exchange of molecules
between neighboring
cells
C) Generate and conduct electrical impulses in excitable
cells
D) Regulate the passage of ions and small molecules across
the cell membrane
44. Identify the wrong statements:
1. Aneuploidy is caused due to non-disjunction
2. Primary non-disjunction occurs during first meiotic
division
3. Secondary non-disjunction occurs during second meiotic
division.
4. Autopolyploids mostly exhibit exaggerations of
characteristics already
prevailing among diploid individuals.
A) 1 & 2 only B) 2 & 3 only C) 3 &4 only D) None
of these
45. Which of the following represents nullisomic condition?
A) 2n-1 B) 2n-2 C) 2n+1 D) 2n+2
46. Microsatellites, also known as short tandem repeats
(STRs), are:
A) Short sequences of DNA that are repeated in tandem and
vary in the number
of repeats among individuals
B) Highly conserved sequences of DNA that are present in
multiple copies in
the genome
C) Regions of the genome that contain polymorphic single
nucleotide variations
D) Sequences of DNA that are located at the ends of linear
chromosomes
47. In garden pea plant tall is dominant over dwarf and
yellow seed is dominant over
green seed. A heterozygous tall, yellow seeded plant is
self-crossed and 80 seeds were
obtained. How many of them would be tall -yellow seeded?
A) 16 B) 5 C) 45 D) 15
48. A phase contrast microscope:
A) Enhances contrast of transparent specimens by exploiting differences in refractive index
B) Relies on staining techniques to highlight specific structures within the specimen
C) Uses fluorescent labels to visualize cellular components
D) Produces 3D images of the surface of objects
49. Which of the following is an example of a point
mutation?
A) Deletion of an entire chromosome
B) Duplication of a chromosomal segment
C) Substitution of one nucleotide for another
D) Inversion of a chromosome segment.
50. Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA (RAPD) analysis is
based on variations in the:
A) Length of DNA fragments produced by different restriction
enzymes
B) Sequence of DNA fragments produced by PCR amplification
using random
primers
C) Mobility of DNA fragments in a gel matrix
D) Hybridization efficiency of DNA fragments
51. Which of the following is a tool provided by NCBI for
searching and retrieving
information from various biological databases?
A) PDB B) Swiss-PROT C) Entrez D) GenBank
52. Match the following:
List I List II
a. Ernst Haeckel 1. Two kingdom system
b. Carolus Linnaeus 2. Three kingdom system
c. Robert Whittaker 3. Four kingdom system
d. Herbert F. Copeland 4. Five kingdom system
A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3 B) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
C) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4 D) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
53. Cladistics is an approach to biological classification
in which organisms are
categorized in groups based on:
A) morphological similarities
B) most recent common ancestry
C) the number of common characters
D) the anatomical resemblances
54. According to International Code of Zoological Nomenclature scientific naming should avoid:
A) Principle of priority
B) Homonymy
C) Preservation of well-established names
D) None of these
55. Identify the feature present in some prokaryotes, but
absent in eukaryotes:
A) Peptidoglycan cell wall B) Plasma membrane
C) Mitochondria D) Centrioles
56. Biradial symmetry is exhibited by:
A) Ctenophora B) Crustacea C) Cetacea D) Cephalopoda
57. Identify the group coming under sub-kingdom Parazoa:
A) Ctenophora B) Rotifera C) Placozoa D) Mesozoa
58. In flat worms like Planaria excretion is performed by:
A) Flame cells B) Green gland
C) Nephridia D) Contractile vacuole
59. Radula is a horny, ribbon like structure used for
scraping or cutting food,found in the
mouths of all mollusks except:
A) Gastropods B) Bivalves C) Scaphopods D) Cephalopods
60. Pedicellariae are:
A) small active tubular projections of Echinoderms having
role in locomotion,
feeding, and respiration
B) fleshy, paddle like segmented appendages of polychaete
worms
C) pincer like structures of Echinoderms used in defense and
in the removal of
unwanted particles from the body
D) adhesive cytoplasmic organelle of ciliate protozoans
61. The survival status of the state bird of kerala,
Bucerosbicornis, is indicated by
“yellow” colour code in the Red Data Book, which means, the
species is:
A) endangered B) vulnerable
C) near threatened D) least concern
62. The following are the respiratory structures of
different Arthropods except:
A) Gills B) Trachea C) Ctenidia D) Book-lungs
63. Which among the following is a chordate, but not a
vertebrate?
A) Ascidia B) Petromyzon C) Sea horse D) Star fish
64. Flightless birds, such as ostriches, belong to the
order:
A) Passeriformes B) Galliformes
C) Struthioniformes D) Falconiformes
65. Match the following:
List I List II
a. Coconut 1. Saissetia nigra
b. Sugar cane 2. Leptocorisa varicornis
c. Rubber 3. Pyrilla perpusilla
d. Rice 4. Rhynchophorus ferrugineus
A) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4 B) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2 D) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
66. The scientific name of the ornamental fish, known as
“Miss Kerala”:
A) Puntius denisonii B) Poecilia reticulata
C) Xiphophorus maculates D) Pterophyllum scalare
67. The enzyme, glycerone phosphate acyl transferase, that
catalyze the first step in the
biosynthesis of plasmalogens is present inside:
A) Peroxisome B) Mitochondria
C) Cytoplasm D) Golgicomplex
68. Process of evolution that suggests very short, rapid
periods of change followed by
long periods of stability:
A) Phyletic gradualism B) Punctuated equilibrium
C) Genetic drift D) Plesiomorphy
69. The Galápagos finches, which evolved into different
species with distinct beak shapes
to exploit different food sources, are an example of:
A) Adaptive radiation B) Convergent evolution
C) Coevolution D) Parallel evolution
70. Which of the following hominin species is believed to be
the earliest to use stone
tools?
A) Homo erectus B) Homo habilis
C) Homo sapiens D) Australopithecus afarensis
71. Biological magnification refers to the:
A) Increase in size of organisms over evolutionary time.
B) Enhancement of nutritive qualities of food as it goes up
the food chain
C) Amplification of a pollutant concentration as it moves up
the food chain.
D) Enlargement of cells during growth and development.
72. What is secondary productivity in an ecosystem?
A) The rate at which producers convert glucose to starch
B) The ratio of energy consumed by herbivores from that
fixed by producers
C) The rate at which decomposers break down organic matter
into nutrients.
D) The rate at which consumers convert organic matter into
biomass.
73. Pyramid of numbers:
A) will be always upright B) may be upright or inverted
C) will be always inverted D) may be upright, inverted or
partially
upright
74. The type of ecological succession driven by biotic
factors within an ecosystem is
------ succession.
A) primary B) autogenic C) allogenic D) autotrophic
75. Adopted as an extension of the UNFCCC in 1997, this
protocol sets binding targets
for industrialized countries to reduce their greenhouse gas
emissions:
A) Kyoto Protocol B) Montreal Protocol
C) Stockholm Convention D) Rotterdam Convention
76. Learning that occurs without any obvious reinforcement
or reward, and which is not
immediately expressed in behaviour:
A) Insight learning B) Latent learning
C) Imprinting D) Operant learning
77. Leptin is a regulator of appetite secreted from:
A) Enteroendocrine cells in ileum and colon
B) Parietal cells in gastric fundus
C) Adipocytes throughout the body
D) Arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus
78. Match the following:
List I List II
a. Pepsin 1.small intesine
b. Chymotrypsin 2. stomach
c. maltase 3. pancreas
d. ptyalin 4. salivary glands
A) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4 B) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
C) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4 D) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
79. Hamburger phenomenon:
A) Low level of oxyhaemoglobin enables blood to transport
more carbon di oxide
B) High level of H+
ions promote oxygen release from oxyhaemoglobin
C) Transport of bicarbonate ion from red blood cell into
blood plasma in exchange
for a chloride ion
D) None of the above
80. Tachycardia:
A) Persistent resting adult heart rate above 100 beats per
minute
B) Persistent resting adult heart rate below 60 beats per
minute
C) Persistent resting adult heart rate between 60 and 100
beats per minute
D) None of the above
81. The blood cells that play a critical role in
pathogen-specific immunity by producing
antibodies:
A) T lymphocytes B) Thrombocytes
C) B lymphocytes D) Eosinophils
82. The maturation of T lymphocytes takes place within:
A) Thyroid gland B) Parathyroid gland
C) Thymus gland D) Bone marrow
83. The cells in the distal convoluted tubule concerned with
reabsorption of K+
and secretion of H+ :
A) Principal cells B) Intercalated cells
C) Parietal cells D) Mesangial cells
84. The filamentous protein that stabilize the myosin
filament, center it between the thin
filaments, prevent overstretching of the sarcomere, and to
recoil the sarcomere like a
spring after it is stretched:
A) Desmin B) Nebulin C) Titin D) Tropomyosin
85. A sustained muscle contraction evoked when a muscle's
motor unit is stimulated by
multiple impulses at a sufficiently high frequency so that
the relaxation phase
disappears completely is called:
A) Summation B) Fatigue C) Tonus D) Tetanus
86. Identify the excitatory neurotransmitter:
A) GABA B) Glutamate C) Serotonin D) Dopamine
87. Mature differentiated neurons lack the cell organelle:
A) Centriole B) Golgi body
C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Mitochondria
88. Which of the following is a mechanism of action for
water-soluble hormones?
A) By inducing changes in the extracellular matrix
B) By entering the cell and binding to nuclear receptors
C) Activating G protein-coupled receptors
D) By entering the cell and binding to intracellular
receptors
89. During the process of spermiogenesis the acrosome of
sperm develops from:
A) Golgi bodies B) Mitochondria
C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Centrioles
90. Which conformation of DNA exhibits the Watson &
Crick Model?
A) A-DNA B) B-DNA C) Z-DNA D) All of these
91. RNA polymerases catalyze the formation of:
A) Peptide bond B) Ester bond
C) Phosphodiester bond D) Glycosidic bonds
92. Lipolysis is inhibited by:
A) Insulin B) Glucagon C) Epinephrine D) Carnitine
93. The product formed during the synthesis of fatty acid,
by the condensation of acetyl
ACP and malonyl ACP is:
A) Malonyl CoA B) Acetoacetyl ACP
C) Butyryl ACP D) Palmitoyl ACP
94. The enzyme involved in the release of NH4+from glutamate:
A) Glutamate reductase B) Glumate decarboxylase
C) Glutamic oxidase D) Glutamate dehydrogenase
95. Identify the exclusively ketogenic aminoacidsin humans that can be degraded directly into acetyl-CoA, which is the precursor of ketone bodies:
A) Glutamic acid and Glutamine
B) Asparagine and Aspartic acid
C) leucine and lysine
D) Serine and Valine
96. Which among the following is used as a standard
laboratory method to quantify the
radioactivity of low energy radioisotopes?
A) liquid scintillation counter
B) ion exchange chromatography
C) ELISA
D) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance spectroscopy
97. Chi-square test is used to:
A) Examine whether two categorical variables are independent
in influencing the
test statistics
B) Determine the significance of the difference between the
means of two sets of
data
C) Split an observed aggregate variability found inside a
data set into two parts
D) Express the probability of a given number of events
occurring in a fixed
interval of time or space
98. In a cross involving two genes that exhibit recessive epistasis, what phenotypic ratio would be expected in the F2 generation?
A) 15:1 B) 9:4:3 C) 9:3:3:1 D) 12:3:1
99. DNA polymerase enzyme involved in the replication of
mitochondrial DNA:
A) DNA polymerase α (alpha)
B) DNA polymerase β (beta)
C) DNA polymerase γ (gamma)
D) DNA polymerase δ (delta)
100. The cloning vector ideal for carrying large DNA
segments like eukaryotic genes:
A) Yeast artificial chromosomes
B) Plasmids
C) Cosmids
D) Phagemids
101. The molecules separated using electrophoresis can be
transferred to nylon
membranes in:
A) Southern blotting only
B) Northern blotting only
C) Southern blotting and Northern blotting
D) Southern blotting, Northern blotting, and Western
blotting
102. The first approved gene therapy procedure was used to
treat:
A) Cystic fibrosis B) Huntington’s disease
C) Haemophilia D) Severe combined immunodeficiency
103. Name the first cloned rhesus macaque, using the
technique, called "embryo splitting":
A) ReTro B) Tetra
C) Lulu and Nana D) Zhong Zhong and Hua Hua
104. The prokaryotic structure absent in mycoplasmas:
A) Double stranded circular DNA
B) Peptidoglycan cell wall
C) Three layered cellular membrane
D) 70S ribosomes
105. Zika virus is transmitted to people primarily through:
A) Respiratory droplets and contact routes
B) The bite of an infected Aedes species mosquito
C) Bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito
D) Direct contact with infected animals, such as bats or
pigs, or their body fluids
106. GLUT3 is a class I facilitative glucose transporter
mainly present in:
A) Hepatocytes B) kidney tubule cells
C) Brain D) intestinal brush border cells
107. The tight junctions are composed of the following
proteins except:
A) Occluding B) Junction adhesion molecule proteins
C) Claudins D) Cadherins
108. The inner mitochondrial membrane is characterized by
the presence of an unusual
phospholipid:
A) Cardiolipin B) Porins
C) ATP synthase D) Mitofilin
109. Cathepsin enzymes produced by lysosomes act on:
A) Glycogen B) Triacylglycerol
C) Protein D) DNA and RNA
110. The complex integral for the progression of the cell
from the Growth 1 phase to the
Synthesis phase of the cell cycle, for the Start or G1/S
checkpoint is Cyclin:
A) A/Cdk1 B) D/Cdk4 C) B/Cdk1 D) A/Cdk2
111. BCR-ABL fusion gene is associated with:
A) Renal cell cancer
B) Sporadic thyroid cancer
C) Invasive ductal breast cancer
D) Chronic myeloid leukemia
112. Desmin filaments are found in:
A) Neurons B) Muscle cells
C) Epithelial cells D) Hepatocytes
113. Identify the Hydrophobic second messenger:
A) phosphatidylinositol
B) Cyclic adenosine monophosphate
C) Cyclic guanosine monophosphate
D) Inositol trisphosphate
114. Which is the first amino acid to dock in the ribosome
to initiate protein synthesis in
eukaryotes:
A) Glycine B) Valine C) Methionine D) Phenylalanine
115. Gene transcription is repressed by:
A) Methylation of CpG sites in the promoter region
B) methylation of CpGs in the body of a gene
C) TET enzyme activity in the CpGsof a gene promoter
D) All the above
116. SARS-CoV-2 virus is a---- virus.
A) “Positive-strand” ssRNA B) “Negative-strand” ssRNA
C) Tailed dsDNA D) dsDNA
117. The component of RNA-induced silencing complex, that
activates and cleaves the
target mRNA:
A) protein kinase RNA activator
B) transactivation response RNA binding protein
C) endoribonuclease Dicer
D) Argonaute
118. The protein for manufacturing ‘BioSteel’, a
high-strength fiber-based material,
produced by Transgenic:
A) mice B) goat
C) spider D) silk worm moth
119. A multiple sequence alignment tool provided by DDBJ:
A) BLAST B) FASTA C) ClustalW D) Chime
120. Holandric genes are inherited from:
A) Mother to daughter only B) Father to son only
C) Father to daughter only D) Father to grandson through
daughter
