NEET Biology Questions and Answers 2026

neet biology questions and answers 2026

1. In angiosperms, root hairs arise from which one of the following regions of the root?

a. the root cap zone

b. the region of meristematic activity

c. the region of elongation

d. the region of maturation

Answer: d. the region of maturation

Explanation: In angiosperms, root hairs arise from the region of maturation (also known as the zone of differentiation). This zone, located proximal to the region of elongation, contains fully matured cells.

2. In the lac operon, the z gene codes for :

a.permease

b.transacetylase

c. beta-galactosidase

d.the repressor of lac operon

Answer: c. beta-galactosidase

Explanation: In the lac operon, the z gene codes for the enzyme (beta-galactosidase) . This enzyme is essential for lactose metabolism, as it catalyzes the hydrolysis (breakdown) of lactose into its monomeric units, glucose and galactose.

The y gene codes for permease, and the a gene codes for transacetylase.

3. Exploring molecular, genetic, and species-level diversity for products of economic importance is called:

a.Biofortification

b.Bioremediation

c.Bioprospecting

d. Biomagnification

Answer: c.Bioprospecting

Explanation:

Biofortification is the process of increasing the nutritional value of staple food crops (such as iron, zinc, or vitamins) during plant growth through techniques like conventional breeding, genetic modification, or agronomic practices (fertilizers)

Bioremediation is a sustainable, nature-based process that uses microorganisms (bacteria, fungi) or plants to clean up polluted environments, such as soil, water, and groundwater, by breaking down or neutralizing contaminants into non-toxic substances

Biomagnification, also known as biological magnification or bioamplification, is the increasing concentration of toxic substances (such as heavy metals or pesticides) in the tissues of organisms at higher levels in a food chain.

4. Alpha helix is found in which level of protein structure?

a. Secondary structure

b. primary structure

c. tertiary structure

d. quaternary structure

Answer: a. Secondary structure

5. Match List I with List II :

List I	List II
A. Genetically modified organism	I. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
B. Thermostable DNA polymerase	II. Bt cotton
C. Ti plasmid	III. Thermus aquaticus
D. pBR322	IV. Escherichia coli

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a.A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

b.A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

c.A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

d. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Answer: a.A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

6. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Productivity	I. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
B. Net Primary Productivity	II. Bt cotton
C. Gross Primary Productivity	III. Rate of biomass production
D. Secondary Productivity	IV. Escherichia coli

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a.A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

b.A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

c.A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

d. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Answer: a..A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

7. Since the origin and diversification of life on Earth, there have been five episodes of mass extinction of species. How is the sixth extinction, which is in progress, different from the previous episodes?

a.The present net species extinction rate is zero

b.the current species extinction rate is nearly 10 times faster than that in previous episodes

c.the present species extinction rates are 100 to 1000 times faster than in the pre-human times.

d. the current species extinction rates are far lower than those in previous episodes

Answer: c.the present species extinction rates are 100 to 1000 times faster than in the pre-human times.

Explanation:

Correct Option (c): According to ecologists and the fossil record, the current "Sixth Extinction" is distinguished from previous mass extinctions primarily by its pace. The current rate is estimated to be 100 to 1,000 times faster than the natural "background" rates observed in pre-human times. This acceleration is largely attributed to human activities such as habitat destruction, pollution, and climate change.
Incorrect Option (a): The species extinction rate is definitely not zero; it is significantly higher than historical averages, with nearly half of all species potentially facing extinction within the next century if current trends continue.
Incorrect Option (b): While the extinction rate is faster, "10 times faster" is a significant underestimate compared to the 100 to 1,000 times faster rate supported by scientific data.
Incorrect Option (d): The current rates are not lower; they are drastically higher and more rapid than the previous five episodes of mass extinction

8. Alpha-helix is found in which level of protein structure?

a. Secondary structure

b. primary structure

c. Tertiary structure

d. Quaternary structure

Answers: a. Secondary structure

Explanation: The alpha helix is found in the secondary level of protein structure. It is a common, localized, three-dimensional folding pattern where a polypeptide chain coils, stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonds between the carbonyl ($C=O$) and amino ($N-H$) groups of the backbone

9. The main function of bulliform cells in grasses is

a. to transport water

b. to perform photosynthesis

c.to make the leaf impermeable to fungal spores

d. to minimize water loss during water stress

Answer: d. to minimize water loss during water stress

10. Identify the correct sequence of steps in each cycle of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

a.Extension ->Annealing -> Denaturation

b. Extension ->Annealing -> Denaturation

c. Denaturation ->Annealing ->Extension

d. Denaturation -> Extension -> Annealing

Answer: c. Denaturation ->Annealing ->Extension

11. Match List I with List II

List I (Phase of cell cycle)	List II (Activity)
A. G1 phase	I. Actual cell division occurs
B. S phase	II. Cell is metabolically active and continuously grows but does not replicate its DNA
C. phase	III. Synthesis of DNA occurs and the amount of DNA per cell doubles
D. M phase	IV. Proteins are synthesized while cell growth continues

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

b. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

c.A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

d.A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Answer: d.A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

12. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. The Amazon rainforest being cut and cleared for cultivation of soyabeans is an example of habitat loss.

B. Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon became extinct due to over-exploitation by humans.

C. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in East Africa helped in population growth of cichlid fish in the lake.

D. Water hyacinth is an invasive species.

E. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it are not affected.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.A, B and E only

2.A, B and D only

3.C, D and E only

4.B, C and D only

Answer: 2.A, B and D only

13. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to a transcription unit in DNA?

A. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions: promoter, structural gene and terminator.

B. The promoter is said to be located towards the

5^{'}

-end of the structural gene.

C. The promoter is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase.

D. The promoter defines the template and coding strands.

E. The terminator is located towards the

3^{'}

-end of the coding strand and it defines the end of the process of transcription.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.A, B, C and D only

2.A, C, D and E only

3.B,C, D and E only

4.A,B, C, D and E only

Answer: 4.A,B, C, D and E only

14. Which one of the following statements is not true about the universal rules of binomial nomenclature?

a. Biological names are generally in Latin

b. Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten are separately underlined or printed in italics

c. The specific epithet in the biological name starts with small letter

d. The first word in the biological name represents the specific epithet, while the second component denotes the genus.

Answer: d. The first word in the biological name represents the specific epithet, while the second component denotes the genus.

15. Which one of the following is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis?

a. Centrosome

b. Chromatin

c.KInetochore

d. Nucleolus

16. 2(C51H98O6) +145 O2-> 102 CO2+98H2O+ENERGY

The respiratory Quotient (RQ) of a biomolecule used for respiration as per the above equation would be

a. Between 0.5 and 0.95

b.Less than 0.5

c.1.0

d. Between 1.25 and 2

Answer: a. Between 0.5 and 0.95

Explanation

The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) of the biomolecule in the given equation is 0.7. This value is characteristic of fats (specifically tripalmitin) being used as a respiratory substrate.

1. Identify the RQ Formula

The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is the ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide produced to the volume of oxygen consumed during respiration:
RQ=

2. Extract Values from the Equation

From the balanced chemical equation provided:
(2(C51H98O6)+145O2->102CO2+98H2O+Energy

CO2 produced: 102 molecules
O2 consumed: 145 molecules

17. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Incomplete dominance	I. Human skin colour
B. Co-dominance	II. Inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum sp.
C. Pleiotropy	III. Phenylketonuria disease in humans
D. Polygenic inheritance	IV. ABO blood groups

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a.A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

b. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

c. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

d. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Answer: a.A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

18. Arrange the following steps of DNA fingerprinting in a correct sequence.

A. Isolation of DNA and its digestion by restriction endonucleases.

B. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.

C. Transferring of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes.

D. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments by autoradiography.

E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a.A, B, D, C, E

b.A, D,B, E, C

c.A, E, C, B, D

d.A,E,B, C, D

Answer: c) A, E, C, B, D

19. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Decomposition	I. Accumulation of dark coloured amorphous colloidal substance
B. Detritus	II. Release of inorganic nutrients by the activity of microbes in soil
C. Mineralisation	III. Breaking down of complex organic matter into inorganic substances
D. Humification	IV. Dead remains of plants and animals including fecal matter

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-II

2.A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

3.A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

4.A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

Answer: 2.A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

20. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to packaging of DNA helix?

A. Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called histone octamer.

B. Histones are negatively charged basic proteins.

C. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues – lysine and arginine.

D. The positively charged DNA is wrapped around the histone octamer to form nucleosome.

E. The packaging of chromatin at higher levels requires an additional set of proteins called non-histone chromosomal proteins.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A,C and E only

2.B, D and E only

3.C, D and E only

4.A, B and D only

Answer: 1. A,C and E only

21. How many ATP and NADPH molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin pathway?

a. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH

b.12 ATP and 18 NADPH

c.24 ATP and 18 NADPH

d. 6 ATP and 12 NADPH

Answer: a. 18 ATP and 12 NADPH

22. The enzyme required for carboxylation in the Calvin cycle is :

a. Hexokinase

b.PEP carboxylase

c.RuBp Carboxylase oxygenase

d. Carboxypeptidase

Answer: c.RuBp Carboxylase oxygenase

23. Find the incorrect statements about photosynthesis from the following:

A. The water-splitting complex is associated with PSI

B. C4 plants use the C3 pathway of CO2 fixation as the main biosynthetic pathway

C. In C4 plants, photosynthesis does not occur

D. C3 plants exhibit Kranz anatomy

E. ATP synthesis in chloroplasts occurs through chemiosmosis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. B and C only

b. B only

c. B and E only

d. A and D only

Answer: d. A and D only

24. Arrange the following steps of somatic hybridization in a correct sequence.

A. Digestion of cell walls.

B. Isolation of naked protoplasts.

C. Fusion of protoplasts to get hybrid protoplast.

D. Isolation of single cells from two different varieties of plants.

E. Growing of hybrid protoplast to form a new plant.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) D, A, B, C, E

b) E, B, A, D, C

c) D, B, A, E, C

d) E, A, B, C, D

Answer: a.D, A, B, C, E

25. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Conjunctive tissue	I. Specialised cells in the vicinity of guard cells
B. Casparian strips	II. Endodermal cells rich in starch
C. Subsidiary cells	III. Tissue between xylem and phloem
D. Starch sheath	IV. Endodermal cells with suberin deposition

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

b)A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Answer:

c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

26. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of plant cells in the phase of elongation?

a) New cell wall deposition

b) cell enlargement

c) increased vacuolation

d)large conspicuous nuclei

Answer: d)large conspicuous nuclei

27. Match List I with List II

List I (Growth Regulator)	List II (Function/ Effect)
1. 2,4-D	I. Brewing industry
2. GA3	II. Stimulation of stomatal closure
3. Kinetin	III.Herbicide
4. ABA	IV. Nutrient mobilisation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

c) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

d) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Answer: a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

28. Which of the following is an in-situ conservation method?

a) Sacred groves

b)wildlife safari parks

c) botanical gardens

d) seed banks

Answer: a) Sacred Groves

29. Which of the following statements are not true regarding restriction endonucleases?

A. They are called molecular scissors.

B. These are the enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophages in {E. coli.

C. They cut the DNA only at the centre of the palindromic sites.

D. They remove nucleotides only from the ends of DNA fragments.

E. They recognise specific palindromic base-pair sequences.

Choose the answer from the options given below:

a) A and B only

b) A and E only

c) D and E only

d) C and D only

Answer: d) C and D only

30. In Racemose inflorescence

a) the main axis terminates in a flower

b) flowers are solitary

c) the growth is limited

d) flowers are borne in an acropetal succession.

Answer: d) flowers are borne in an acropetal succession.

31. Arrange the following in the correct developmental sequence related to microsporogenesis?

A.Microscope tetrads

B. Sporogenous tissue

C. Pollen grains

D. Pollen mother cells

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D, A, C, B

2. B, D, A,C

3. B, D, C, A

4. A, D, C, B

Answer: 2. B, D, A,C

32. Identify the correct statements about biomolecules

A. Lipids are generally water soluble.
B. Proteins are polypeptides.
C. Polysaccharides are long chains of sugars.
D. Adenine and guanine are substituted pyrimidines.
E. Almost all enzymes are proteins.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. B, D and E only

b. B, C and E only

c. A, B and C only

d. C, D and E only

Answer: b. B, C and E only

33. Heterophyllous development in response to environment is an example of which of the following phenomena?

a. Redifferentiation

b. Elasticity

c. Dedifferentiation

d. Plasticity

Answer: d. Plasticity

34. Which of the following statements are correct regarding amino acids?

A. They are substituted methanes

B. Serine is an aromatic amino acid.

C. Valine is a neutral amino acid.

D. Lysine is an acidic amino acid.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a. C and D only

b. B and C only

c. A and C only

d. A and B only

Answer: c. A and C only

35. The 'evil quartet' of biodiversity loss includes which of the following?

a. Over-exploitation: Alien species invasions: Air pollution : Co-extinctions

b. Habitat loss and Fragmentation: Air pollution. Water pollution : Co-extinctions

c. Habitat loss and Fragmentation: over exploitation , Alien species invasions, co extinctions

d. Over exploitation :Alen species invasions: Soil pollution: Co extinctions

Answer: c. Habitat loss and Fragmentation: over exploitation , Alien species invasions, co extinctions

36. Match List I with List II

List I (Process)	List II (Location)
1. Glycolysis	I. Inner mitochondrial membrane
2. ETS	II. Mitochondrial matrix
3. Accumulation of proteins	III.Cytoplasm
4. Krebs cycle	IV.Intermembrane space

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

d) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

answer: c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

37. Which one of the following is a triploid cell?

a)Synergid

b) Zygote

c) Central cell

d) Primary Endosperm cell

Answer: d) Primary Endosperm cell

38. Which one of the following types of pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma?

a) Autogamy

b) Xenogamy

c) Geitonogamy

d) Cleistogamy

Answer: b) Xenogamy

39. Match List I with List II

List I (Placentation)	List II (Example)
1. Marginal	I. Mustard
2. Axile	II. Pea
3. Parietal	III.Marigold
4. Basal	IV. Lemon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Answer: a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

40. The main criteria used for five kingdom classification proposed by R H Whittaker (1969) included:

A. Cell structure

B. Body organization

C. Presence of flagellum

D. Reproduction

E. Phylogenetic relationships

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) A, B, C, D and E

b) B, C and D only

c) A, B, D and E only

d) A, B and E only

Answer: c) A, B, D and E only

41. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Trypsin	Intercellular Ground substance
B. Morphine	II. Lectin
C. Concanavalin A	III. Enzyme
D. Collagen	IV. Alkaloid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

d) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

Answer: a) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

42. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to DNA separation, isolation, and visualization?

A. The cutting of DNA is done by molecular scissors.

B. The DNA fragments separate according to their size in an agarose gel, upon electrophoresis.

C. The separated DNA fragments can be seen without staining when exposed to UV light.

D. The separated DNA fragments, when stained with ethidium bromide, can be seen in visible light.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) B and D only

b) A and B only

c) B and C only

d) A and D only

Answer: b) A and B only

43. Which one of the following disorders is caused by the substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine at the sixth position of the beta-globin chain of the hemoglobin molecule?

a) Thalassemia

b) Sickle cell anaemia

c) Phenylketonuria

d) Haemophilia

Answer: b) Sickle cell anaemia

44. Match List I with List II

List I	List II
A. Cortisol	I. Stimulates the formation of alveoli in mammary glands
B. Aldosterone	II. Produces anti-inflammatory reactions
C. Cholecystokinin	III. Stimulates reabsorption of Na+ and water from renal tubule
D. Progesterone	IV. Stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

b) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Answer: c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

45. Arrange the following events occurring in Renin- Angiotensin mechanism in the correct order:

a. Increase in blood pressure and Glomerular filtration rate.

b. Reaborption of Na+ and water from distal parts of tubule due to Aldosterone

c.Fall in Glomerular filtration rate

d. Vasoconstruction by Angiotensin II and release of Aldosterone

e. Renin converts Angiotensinogen into Angiotensin I. followed by Angiotensin II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A, C, E, B, D

b) C, A, B, D,E

c) A, D, B, E, C

d) C, E, D, B, A

Answer: d) C, E, D, B, A

46. In human, respiration oocurs in the following steps, Arrange these steps in the correct order.

a. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues

b.Diffusion of O2 and CO2 across alveolar membrane

c. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air drawn in and CO₂-rich alveolar air released out

d. cellular respiration

e. transport of gases by the blood

choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A,B, C, D, E

b) E, A, C, D, B

c) C, B, E, A, D

d) C, A, B, E, D

Answer: c) C, B, E, A, D

47. Insertion of a foreign DNA at BamHI site in an E. coli cloning vector pBR322 results in the loss of antibiotic resistance towards:

a) Ampicillin and tetracycline
b) Tetracycline
c) Ampicillin
d) Gentamycin
Answer:b) Tetracycline
48. The following reaction depicts the activity of a particular class of enzymes
Image
Identify the enzyme class E from the following options:
a) Transferases
b) Isomerases
c) Lyases
d) Ligases
Answer: Lyases
49. The specific receptors for neurotransmitters in a synapse are present on---
a) Schwann cell
b) Myelin sheath
c) Pre-ynaptic membrane
d) Post-synaptic membrane
Answer: d) Post-synaptic membrane

50. What is the probability of having children with 'O' blood group, where both mother and father are heterozygous for 'A' and 'B' blood group, respectively ?

a) 50%
b) 75%
c) 0%
d) 25%
Answer: d) 25%
51. Match List I with List II

List I (Respiratory Volume)	List II (Capacity in mL)
A. Expiratory Reserve Volume	I. 2500-3000 mL
B. Residual Volume	II. 500 mL
C. Inspiratory Reserve Volume	III. 1000-1100 mL
D. Tidal volume	IV. 1100-1200 mL

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
c) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer:
a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
52. Which of the following is not an example of convergent evolution?

a) Wings of butterflies and birds
b) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
c) Fore limbs of whales and bats
d) Eyes of octopuses and mammals
Answer:c) Fore limbs of whales and bats

53. Male frogs can be distinguished from female frogs due to the presence of:

A. Bulging eyes

B. Vocal sacs

C. Webbed digits in feet

D. Copulatory pad on first digit of fore limbs

E. Olive green-coloured skin with dark irregular spots

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) B and D only
b) B and C only
c) A and B only
d) C and E only
Answer: a) B and D only

54. A group of researchers procured some fish-like animals and upon investigation the following characters were observed:

A. Endoskeleton was made of cartilage.

B. Ectoparasitic; as they were found attached on fish skin with their circular sucking mouth.

C. Paired fins and scales are absent, but 7 pairs of gill slits were present.

Which of the following species of animals did they consider to fit best with these characters?

a) Petromyzon sp.
b) Branchiostoma sp.
c) Scoliodon sp.
d) Exocoetus sp.
Answer:
a) Petromyzon sp.
55. Match List I with List II with respect to the chronology of evolution of life forms

List I
List II
A. About 65 mya
I. Jawless Fish probably evolved
B. About 500 mya
II. The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth
C. About 350 mya
III. Seaweeds and few plants probably existed.
D. About 320 mya
IV. Invertebrates were formed and became active

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
c) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer: d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
56. Match List I with List II

List I
List II
A. Progesterone
I. Barrier made up of rubber used by females
B.      Multiload 375
II. Oral contraceptive
C.      Diaphragm
III. Hormone-releasing IUD
D.      Saheli
IV. Copper releasing IUD

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
b) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer: a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

57. The WBC count of a person's blood sample is 8000/cu.mm. How many eosinophils and lymphocytes would be in the same blood sample approximately ?

a) 300 - 500/cu.mm and 500 - 700/cu.mm, respectively
b) 300 - 500/cu.mm and 1200 - 1500/cu.mm, respectively
c) 100 - 120/cu.mm and 160 - 200/cu.mm, respectively
d) 160 - 240/cu.mm and 1600 - 2000/cu.mm, respectively
Answer:
d) 160 - 240/cu.mm and 1600 - 2000/cu.mm, respectively

58. Match List I with List II

List I (Drug)	List II (Effect)
A. Nicotine	I. Causes sense of euphoria and increased energy
B. Morphine	II. Stimulates adrenal gland to release catecholamines into blood circulation
C. Heroin	III. Effective sedative and painkiller
D. Cocaine	IV. A depressant, slows down body function

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
c) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Answer: a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

59. The human protein named α -1-antitrypsin, obtained from transgenic animals, is used for the treatment of ________.

a) Alzheimer's disease
b) Emphysema
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer: b) Emphysema

60. Select the set of fishes which belong to the class Osteichthyes :

a) Saw fish, Fighting fish and Dog fish
b) Devil fish, Cuttlefish and Hagfish
c) Flying fish, Angel fish and Fighting fish
d) Starfish, Hagfish and Cuttlefish
Answer: c) Flying fish, Angel fish and Fighting fish
61. Select the incorrect statements from the following :
A. Digestive system in Platyhelminthes is incomplete.

B. Bilateral symmetry is a characteristic feature of adult Echinoderms.

C. Pseudocoelom is possessed by Aschelminthes.

D. Notochord is persistent throughout life in the class Chondrichthyes.

E. Members of class Reptilia maintain a constant body temperature.

Choose the answer from the options given below :

a) A and C only
b) B and E only
c) C and D only
d) B and D only
Answer: b) B and E only

62. Non-membrane-bound cell organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are:

a) Mitochondria
b) Lysosomes
c) Centrosomes
d) Ribosomes
Answer: d) Ribosomes
63. Which of the following equations depicts Verhulst-Pearl logistic population growth?
Answer: 2
64. Select the incorrect statements with reference to Rh grouping.

A. Erythroblastosis foetalis is a condition observed having foetus with $R h^{- v e}$ blood and mother with $R h^{+ v e}$ blood.

B. Rh antigen is observed on RBCs in the majority of human beings.

C. Before blood transfusion, Rh group should also be matched.

D. Rh incompatibility is observed when a pregnant mother is $R h^{- v e}$ and the foetus is $R h^{+ v e}$ .

E. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the second child.

Choose the answer from the options given below:

a) B and C only
b) A and B only
c) A and E only
d) C and D only

Answer: c) A and E only
65. Match List I with List II

List I (Bioactive molecules) & List II (Importance)

List I (Bioactive molecules)	List II (Importance)
A. Streptokinase	I. Immunosuppressive agent
B. Statins	II. Removal of clots from the blood vessels
C. Lipases	III. Blood cholesterol-lowering agent
D. Cyclosporin A	IV. Detergent formulations

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
d) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Answer: c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

66. Match List I with List II

List I (Respiratory Volume)	List II (Capacity in mL)
A. Molluscs	I. Pulmonary respiration only
B. Reptiles	II. Branchial respiration
C. Adult amphibians	III. Cellular respiration
D. Amoeba	IV. Pulmonary and Cutaneous respiration

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
b) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer: d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

67. The sixth mutant codon of beta globin gene causing polymerization of Haemoglobin and change in RBC shape is ________

a) CAG
b) GUG
c) AUG
d) GAG
Answer: b) GUG
68. Choose the correct statements regarding muscle contraction.

A. A motor neuron carries a signal sent by the Central Nervous System (CNS) to the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre.

B. The neural signal generates an action potential which causes the release of $C a^{+ +}$ into sarcoplasm.

C. Increase in $C a^{+ +}$ inactivates the actin for breaking cross bridges.

D. Actin binds to the myosin head to form a cross bridge.

E. Shortening of sarcomere takes place, by pulling actin filaments towards the centre of 'A' band.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) C and E only
b) A, B, D and E only
c) A and B only
d) C and D only

Answer: b) A, B, D and E only

69. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to human endoskeleton?

A. Human skull is monocondylic.

B. The joint between any two adjoining vertebrae is a cartilaginous joint.

C. In human beings, the number of cervical vertebrae is seven.

D. All ribs except the last 2 pairs are bicephalic.

E. The occipital bone of skull is articulated with atlas vertebra.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) B, C and E only
b) C, D and E only
c) A, B and D only
d) B and E only
Answer: a) B, C and E only

70. Spermatogonia undergo a series of cell divisions to produce sperms. Select the correct statements from the following :

A. Spermatogonia always undergo meiotic cell division.

B. Primary spermatocytes divide mitotically to produce secondary spermatocytes.

C. Secondary spermatocytes, through their second meiotic division, produce haploid spermatids.

D. Spermatids produce spermatozoa through mitosis.

E. Spermatids transform into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) C and E only
b) A, C and E only
c) B, C and D only
d) A and E only
Answer: a) C and E only

71. The JGA (Juxta Glomerular Apparatus) is a special sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in ________ related to the same nephron.

a) Proximal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole
b) Distal convoluted tubule and efferent renal arteriole
c) Proximal convoluted tubule and efferent renal arteriole
d) Distal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole
Answer:
d) Distal convoluted tubule and afferent renal arteriole

72. Which one of the following is an appropriate example of 'sexual deceit' ?

a) Sea anemone and clown fish
b) Female wasp and fig
c) Ophrys and bumblebee
d) Cuckoo and crow
Answer:
c) Ophrys and bumblebee

73. Choose the correct statements regarding frog's anatomy.

A. Hepatic portal system is the special venous connection between liver and intestine.

B. There are twelve pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.

C. The ureters and oviducts open separately into the cloaca in female frogs.

D. Hind-brain consists of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and optic lobes.

E. Sinus venosus joins the right atrium of heart.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

a) B and D only
b) A, B and C only
c) A, C and E only
d) B and C only
Answer: c) A, C and E only

74. Match List I with List II related to embryonic development at various months of pregnancy:

List I	List II
A. The foetus movement starts and hair appears on the head	I. 24 weeks of pregnancy
B. the foetus develops limbs and digits	II. 20 weeks of pregnancy
C. The foetus develops external genital organs	III. 8 weeks of pregnancy
D. The foetus body is covered with fine hair; eyelids separate and eyelashes are formed	IV. 12 weeks of pregnancy

a) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
b) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
d) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Answer: c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

75. In a population of a grasshopper species, the chromosome number of some members is 23 and some other members possess 24 chromosomes. The 23 and 24 chromosome-bearing members in this species are ________

a) females and males, respectively
b) all males
c) males and females, respectively
d) all females
Answer: c) males and females, respectively

76. In which animal do haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametes ?

a) Male frogs
b) Male honeybees
c) Male grasshoppers
d) Male earthworms
Answer:
b) Male honeybees

77. Arrange the following cell layers/structures around the female gamete from outer to inner side :

A. Zona pellucida

B. Perivitelline space

C. Corona radiata

D. Plasma membrane of ovum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) C, A, D, B
b) C, A, B, D
c) D, B, A, C
d) A, C, B, D
Answer: b) C, A, B, D

78. What is the reason behind production of large holes in 'Swiss Cheese' ?

a) The production of large amount of $C O_{2}$ and $H_{2}$ by Trichoderma polysporum
b) The production of large amount of $C O_{2}$ by Clostridium butylicum
c) The production of large amount of $C O_{2}$ and $H_{2}$ by lactic acid bacteria called Lactobacillus
d) The production of large amount of $C O_{2}$ by Propionibacterium sharmanii
Answer: d) The production of large amount of CO2
by Propionibacterium sharmanii

79. The toxin proteins isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis, coded by which of the following genes would control cotton bollworms and corn borer, respectively ?

a) cryIAc and cryIAb
b) cryIIAb and cryIAc
c) cryIAc and cryIIAb
d) cryIAc and cryIIAb
Answer: a) cryIAc and cryIAb

80. Ecological pyramids represent the relationship between the organisms at different trophic levels and they are generally inverted for :

a) Pyramid of biomass in grassland
b) Pyramid of biomass in sea
c) Pyramid of number in grassland
d) Pyramid of energy in pond ecosystem
Answer: b) Pyramid of biomass in sea

81. Choose the correct statement regarding GIFT to overcome infertility.

a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the uterus of an infertile female.
b) Early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred into the fallopian tube of an infertile female.
c) It is the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment for fertilization and development.
d) Early embryos with up to 8 blastomeres are transferred to the uterus of an infertile female
Answer: c) It is the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment for fertilization and development.

82. Choose the correct statements regarding cell organelles and their inclusions.

A. The endomembrane system includes Golgi complex, endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria.

B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface.

C. Both mitochondria and plastids have circular DNA.

D. A network of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments present in the cytoplasm is called cytoskeleton.

E. Mitochondrion is a single membrane-bound structure.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) A, B and C only
b) A and B only
c) C, D and E only
d) B, C and D only
Answer:
d) B, C and D only

83. Select the correct statements regarding cell membrane in eukaryotic cell.

A. Membrane of human RBCs has approximately 52% protein.

B. Major phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer.

C. Extensions of the plasma membrane into the cell form mesosomes.

D. Tails towards the inner part of lipids are hydrophobic and thus protected from aqueous medium.

E. Glycocalyx is present on the outer surface of the plasma membrane.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

a) C, D and E only
b) B, C and E only
c) A, C and E only
d) A, B and D only
Answer:
d) A, B and D only
84. Match List I with List II

List I
List II (Capacity in mL)
A. Tetany
I.Inflammation of joints
B. Arthritis
II. Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction
C. Myasthenia gravis
III. Wild contraction in muscle due to low
$C a^{+ +}$ in body fluid
D. Muscular dystrophy
IV. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
b) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Answer: b) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Disorders of Muscular and Skeletal System
85. Evolution of human appears parallel to the progressive development of brain and language skills. As such, the evolution of individual species in the sequence of their appearance is :
- a) Ramapithecus $⟶$ Homo habilis $⟶$ Homo erectus $⟶$ Neanderthal $⟶$ Homo sapiens
- b) Homo habilis $⟶$ Homo erectus $⟶$ Ramapithecus $⟶$ Neanderthal $⟶$ Homo sapiens
- c) Homo sapiens $⟶$ Ramapithecus $⟶$ Homo habilis $⟶$ Neanderthal $⟶$ Homo erectus
- d) Neanderthal $⟶$ Ramapithecus $⟶$ Homo habilis $⟶$ Homo erectus $⟶$ Homo sapiens
- Answer: a) Ramapithecus $⟶$ Homo habilis $⟶$ Homo erectus $⟶$ Neanderthal $⟶$ Homo sapiens
- 86. The flightless bird with forelimbs modified as paddle-like structures suited for swimming is known as:
  - a) Aptenodytes
  - b) Neophron
  - c) Psittacula
  - d) Struthio
  - Answer: a) Aptenodytes
  - 87. Choose the correct statements regarding population interactions between two species.
    
    A. In both parasitism and commensalism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed.
    
    B. Both species benefit in mutualism.
    
    C. Both species benefit in commensalism.
    
    D. In parasitism, only one species benefits and the other species is harmed.
    
    E. In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected.
    
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    - a) B and E only
    - b) B, D and E only
    - c) A and B only
    - d) A and D only
    - Answer: b) B, D and E only
    - 88. Which of the following floral formula is the correct floral formula of Solanaceae family ?

NEET Biology Questions and Answers 2026

Disorders of Muscular and Skeletal System

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List I	List II
A. About 65 mya	I. Jawless Fish probably evolved
B. About 500 mya	II. The dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth
C. About 350 mya	III. Seaweeds and few plants probably existed.
D. About 320 mya	IV. Invertebrates were formed and became active

List I	List II
A. Progesterone	I. Barrier made up of rubber used by females
B. Multiload 375	II. Oral contraceptive
C. Diaphragm	III. Hormone-releasing IUD
D. Saheli	IV. Copper releasing IUD

List I	List II (Capacity in mL)
A. Tetany	I.Inflammation of joints
B. Arthritis	II. Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction
C. Myasthenia gravis	III. Wild contraction in muscle due to low $C a^{+ +}$ in body fluid
D. Muscular dystrophy	IV. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle