Biology Exams 4 U

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JEST 2016: Application, Eligibility & Imported Dates

Joint Entrance Screening Test (JEST)
Applicants seeking admission  for a Ph.D / Integrated Ph.D Programme in Physics or Theoretical Computer Science or Neuroscience or Computational Biology in  one  of the Participating Institutes may appear for the Joint Entrance Screening Test (JEST) at one of the Exam Centers.
The Science & Engineering Research Board (SERB) (statutory body established through an Act of Parliament) recognizes JEST as a National Eligibility Test (NET) in their office Memo vide OM No.SB/S9/Z-01/2015.
JEST 2016
Imported dates:
  • Online applications will start from November 5, 2015.
  • Last date for online applications and payments is December 10, 2015.
  • JEST 2016 will be held on Sunday, February 21, 2016.
Participating Institutes have their own eligibility criteria. Applicants who are expected to complete their final examinations by August of each year are also eligible to appear for the JEST exam of that year.
Ph.D. Degree in Neuroscience or Computational Biology - Participating Institutes:
  • IMSc (The Institute of Mathematical Sciences, Chennai):Theoretical Physics, Theoretical Computer Science, and Computational Biology
  • NBRC (National Brain Research Centre, Manesar): Molecular, Computaional and Systems Neuroscience. Sensory & motor systems, learning & memory, language & speech processing, functional neuroimaging: EEG, MEG, fMRI, MRS, stem cells, developmental neurobiology, neurogenetics, neurodegenerative and neurodevelopmental disorders, cancer signaling & glial tumor biology.
 Please note that JEST is meant as a means for students from a Physics background to take up research in Neuroscience or Computational Biology, and interested students have to take the PHYSICS JEST examination. Please visit the NBRC webpage  or the IMSc webpage for more information.
Eligibility Ph.D. Programme -Theoretical Computer Science/Neuroscience/Computational Biology
  • M.Sc./ M.E. / M.Tech. / M.C.A. in Computer Science and related disciplines, and should be interested in the mathematical aspects of computer science. Visit website of IMSc for further details. M.Sc (Physics/ Mathematics), B.E/ B.Tech/ M.C.A in Computer Science for Ph.D. in Neuroscience at NBRC.
  • ​M.Sc./ M.E. / M.Tech. ​/ MCA ​ in any engineering or science discipline, with good mathematical skills and strong interest in biological problems for Ph.D. in Computational Biology at IMSc.
Exam Centers: Ahmedabad, Aligarh, Allahabad, Bangalore, Bardhaman, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar,Chandigarh, Chennai, Delhi, Goa, Guwhati, Hyderabad, Indore, Jaipur, Kanpur, Kharagpur, Kochi, Kolkata, Madurai, Mumbai, Nagpur, Nainital, Patna, Pune, Raipur, Roorkee, Sambalpur, Silchar, Siliguri, Srinagar, Trivandrum, Udaipur, Vishakhapatnam.

Application Procedure (Before filling the ON-LINE application form, candidate is requested to read the following instructions carefully)
ON-LINE Application
To apply online, applicants must create an account using a valid email-id. This account will remain valid from the time of account creation till one month after the date of declaration of results, for that year. Email-ids are linked to the created account as well as  to the application, and will be used for all communications with the applicants. Therefore, the email-id should be active and must not be changed during this period. To submit application online,  applicants must login to the created account and complete the application form. After submission, an unique submission number will be sent to your email-id. Please save all the emails sent to you and the unique submission number must be quoted by the applicant for any communication with the JEST authority.
The steps for submission of ON-LINE application form are
  1. Register yourself before you login. It is assumed that you already have an email-id. Registrations will start from November 5, 2015.
  2. To register, the candidate has to click on the "register to appear for the exam" link in the Homepage. You will receive an email with  your account information after registering with a valid email-id. Follow the instructions given in the email for resetting your password and further login.
  3. Login to the JEST homepage with your username (your email-id) and password. Fill the form and save it, or, modify an already saved form.  Press the "Submit Application" button ONLY when you have inserted and checked all the mandatory entries.
  4. Upload jpg files of your Passport size photo and scanned signature.
  5. Pay the application fee online using the State Bank of India i-collect facility. Please check the FAQ for details of the payment process.
  6. After ON-LINE submission of the application form and successful e-payment of the application fee, your submission procedure will be considered complete. NO modification will be allowed after this.
E-Photo and E-Signature
Photo - Signature
  • While filling up the form, you will be asked to upload jpeg files of your passport size photograph and your signature. The size of the individual files should not exceed 50 Kilo bytes. Crop out the extra white portion from the background surrounding the image to retain clarity.
  • Before uploading your photo and signature files, make sure you have given it a good name.  File names should use  alphabets, underscores, and numbers only.  Special characters such as spaces,  (, #, &,  punctuation, etc., should not be used in filenames.  If you use a logical naming system, like loginname_date_photo.jpg, loginname_date_sig.jpg then it will be printed without any errors.
  • In case the jpeg file of your photo which has been taken with camera exceeds the limit, you should compress the file size using compression softwares available in the websites, such as,
  • Your signature can be scanned with a digital scanner, and saved as jpeg file for uploading. In case this file size produced by scanner also exceeds 50 kB limit, you can compress it using the same tools as explained above.
  • Please make sure the image type is jpeg. For checking, right click and go to the properties of the file being uploaded.
  • Dimension of the image files should be the following
    • Minimum of 100 X 125 pixels or maximum of 240 x 300 pixels (width x height) for photo and 150 x 30 pixels (width x height) for signature
  • Please check ALL the properties of these image files before uploading.
Application Fee
An Application Fee of Rs. 300 (Rs 150 for SC/ST applicants ONLY) is required to be paid along with the application which can be paid online using Debit/Credit cards and Net-banking. Payment by any other mode will NOT be accepted. Click Here for Available Payment Options.
Post-Submission of Application form
  • On successful submission of ON-LINE application form you will receive an E-mail with following information from JEST Website.
• Application data after final submission containing  Unique Submission Number and filled in data.
  • Please save this e-mail for further correspondence with the JEST authority.
  • If you do not receive the above-mentioned e-mail after submission of application form and the successful e-payment of the application fee, contact JEST authority.
  • Admit card will be available in the JEST webpage after 15th of January, 2016. Bring a printout of the downloaded admit card and one of your photo-ids for entry into the examination centre. Admit cards will NOT be sent by post/email.
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CSIR UGC JRF NET Life Sciences JUNE 2015 Solved Questions and Answers

1. When bacteria growing at 20o C are warmed at 37o C, they are most likely to synthesize membrane lipids with more
a. Short chain saturated fatty acids
b. Short chain unsaturated fatty acids
c. Long chain saturated fatty acids
d. Long chain unsaturated fatty acids

2. Which one of the following compounds is generally translocated in the phloem?
a. Sucrose
b. D-Glucose
c. D-Mannose
d. D-Fructose

3. Given below are some statements about prokaryotic and eukaryotic mobile genetic elements or transposons.
A. Most mobile genetic elements in bacteria transpose via an RNA intermediate.
B. Most mobile genetic elements in bacteria are DNA
C. Mobile genetic elements in eukaryotes are only retrotransposons.
D. Both, RNA and DNA transposons, are found in eukaryotes.
Choose correct combination.
a. A and C
b. B and C
c. A and D
d. B and D

CSIR UGC JRF NET Life Sciences JUNE 2015 Solved Questions and Answers
4. Which one of the following statements about LEAFY (LFY) a regulatory gene in Arabidopsis thaliana, is correct?
a. LEAFY (LFY) is involved in floral meristem identity.
b. LEAFY (LFY) is involved in leaf expansion.
c. LEAFY (LFY) is involved in root meristem identity.
d. LEAFY (LFY) is responsible for far-red light mediated seedling growth.

5. Nitrogen gas is reduced to ammonia by nitrogen fixation method. In order to execute the process, which one of the following compounds is usually required?
a. ATP
b. GTP
c. UDP
d. ADP

6. The quantum yield of oxygen evolution during photosynthesis drastically drops in far-red light. This effect is known as:
a. Far red drop.
b. Red drop.
c. Blue drop.
d. Visible spectrum drop.

7. In an alpha helical polypeptide, the backbone hydrogen bonds are between
a. NH of n and CO of n+4 amino acids.
b. CO of n and NH of n+3 amino acids.
c. CO of n and NH of n+4 amino acids.
d. NH of n and CO of n+3 amino acids.

8. The S wave of normal human ECG originates due to
ECG normal sinus rhythm
a. Septal and left ventricular depolarization.
b. Late depolarization of the ventricular walls moving back toward the AV junction.
c. Left to right septal depolarization.
d. Repolarization of atrium.

9. Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) is known to control the transport of which ion?
a. Ca+2
b. Mg+2
c. HCO3-
d. Cl-

10. In type II splicing
a. a ‘G-OH’ from outside makes a nucleophilic attack on 5’P of first base of intron
b. a free 2’O of an internal adenosine makes a nucleophilic attack on 5’P of first phase of intron
c. a 3’O of an internal adenosine makes a nucleophilic attack on 5’P of first base of intron
d. the hydrolysis of last base of exon is carried out by U2/U4/U6

Answers with Explanation
1. c. Long chain saturated fatty acids
Explanation: Long chain saturated fatty acids will decrease the fluidity of the plasma membrane. Bacteria synthesise such fatty acid to survive under high temperature  (Refer: Plasma membrane and membrane fluidity)

2. a. Sucrose
Explanation: Sucrose is translocated through phloem in plants.

3. d. B and D
Explanation: Most transposons in bacteria are DNA and eukaryotes have both DNA and RNA

4. a  LEAFY (LFY) is involved in floral meristem identity.
Explanation: LEAFY is a floral meristem identity gene. (Refer: ABC model of Flower Development)

5. a. ATP
Explanation: The process is coupled to the hydrolysis of 16 equivalents of ATP and is accompanied by the co-formation of one molecule of H2.

6. b. Red drop.
Explanation: The sudden fall in the photosynthetic yield in far-red region of the solar radiation spectrum is called Emerson’s “red drop”.

7. c. CO of n and NH of n+4 amino acids.

Explanation: The alpha helix is a common secondary structure of proteins. To fotm the helix, the bond is between C=O group of the first amino acid with NH group of the fifth amino acid ( n+4 hydrogen bonding). (Refer: Bonds in Protein structure)

8 b. Late depolarization of the ventricular walls moving back toward the AV junction.
Explanation: The S wave is the first negative deflection after the R wave. It represents the late ventricular depolarisation.

9. d. Cl-
Explanation: Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) is a membrane protein and chloride channel in vertebrates that is encoded by CFTR gene. (Refer: Autosomal Recessive  Disorders - Cystic fibrosis)
10. b. a free 2’O of an internal adenosine makes a nucleophilic attack on 5’P of first phase of intron
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Viruses: Definition and Classification

Viruses are infectious intracellular obligate parasites or infectious nucleoproteins.
It consists of nucleic acid (RNA/DNA) enclosed in a protein coat called capsid.
Nucleic acid along with protein coat is called as nucleocapsid.
In some cases apart from capsid, a membranous envelope may be present. Such viruses are called as enveloped viruses.

Virion: Intact infectious viral particle with nucleocapsid.

  • D. Ivanowski (1892) discovered Tobacco mosaic virus or TMV the causative agent of tobacco mosaic disease.
  • Later Stanley (1935) crystallized TMV and these crystals retain its infectivity even after keeping for long time.
  • F.W.Twort (1915) and F.H.Herelle (1917) discovered bacteriophages or viruses that infects bacteria (bacteria eaters)


  • Smallest viruses ~0.02 μm (20 nm) like Polio virus
  • large viruses ~0.3 μm (300 nm) like Small pox virus

Classification of viruses according to International committee of Viral Nomenclature
Classification of virus
Viral Genome
It may be linear or circular, double- or single-stranded DNA, Double- or single-stranded RNA
Depending on its type of nucleic acid, a virus is called as DNA virus or an RNA virus
Viral genome encodes genes for capsid synthesis and synthesis of essential enzymes for successful multiplication inside the host
Genome size 2 Kbp (Circoviruses) to 1.2 Mbp (Mimiviruses)
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Viral Symmetry or Capsid Symmetry

Classification of virus based on viral symmetry
Viruses are infectious intracellular obligate parasites or infectious nucleoproteins.
It consists of nucleic acid (RNA/DNA) enclosed in a protein coat called capsid.
Viral Symmetry The viral symmetry is determined by the orientation of capsid protein coat that protects the viral genome.
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Virus Capsid and Envelope: Structure and Function

Capsid is the protein coat around the viral genome. It differs in size, shape and symmetry. See classification based on viral symmetry.
Individual protein units are called capsomeres
Capsid proteins are encoded by the viral genome
Adeno virus
1. Protects nucleic acid from host nuclease degradation
2. Helps in introduction of viral genome to the host cell
3. Determines the antigenic specificity of virus
Capsid and Envelope
Viral envelope
In some cases apart from capsid, a membranous envelope may be present. Such viruses are called as enveloped viruses.
It is made of lipid and proteins rarely glycoproteins
Sometimes it may be a modified host plasma membrane or internal membranes
Eg: Herpes simplex, chickenpox virus, Influenza virus etc
Projections from the envelope are known as spikes or peplomers.
Function: attachment of the virus to the host cell.
HIV virus uses its spikes for this purpose.
See the difference between enveloped and non-enveloped viruses
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JGEEBILS Biology Entrance Questions and Answers

Joint Graduate Entrance Examination for Biology and Interdisciplinary Life Sciences (JGEEBILS)
Graduate School Admissions - GS Biology Question and Answers
1. Fruitflies have a red eye colour that is determined by the gene RED. Allele R gives a red eye and allele r gives a white eye. R is dominant over r. A single red eye parent and a single white eye parent were mated. Only 50% of the resulting progeny had red eyes. With respect to the RED gene, which of the following best describes the genotype of the red eyed parent?
a. rr
b. Rr
c. RR
d. Any of the above

2. The pI of a protein is 8.3. To carry out ion-exchange chromatography of this protein at pH=7.0, the following should be used to ensure binding and fractionation:
a. Cation exchanger resin
b. Anion exchanger resin
c. Reactive ion exchanger resin
d. Polyanion exchanger resin
3. Genetic sequence data were used to construct the following evolutionary tree relating Mus muculus, Rattus rattus and Homo sapiens. Which of the following is NOT true?
a. Mice are descended from the last common ancestor of humans and rats.
b. Rats are descended from the last common ancestor of humans and mice
c. Humans are descended from the last common ancestor of rats and mice
d. Humans, mice, and rats have a common ancestor

4. A significant proportion of students at TIFR seem to have descended from Chengis Khan. This information was inferred from:
a. Mitochondrial DNA
b. Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms
c. Y chromosome analysis
d. Ancient DNA

5. The recognition sequence for the restriction endonuclease AstWI is GRCGYC where R is any Purine and Y is any Pyrimidine base. In a truly random DNA sequence what will be the average distance (measured in base pairs) between successive AstWI cut sites?
a. 1024
b. 512
c. 4096
d. 24
6. Jitesh carried out a steady-state kinetics experiment for an enzyme degradase with and without molecule X as part of the reaction mixture. The reactions were carried out for 5 minutes and he got the following results:

These results suggest that:
a. Molecule X is a competitive inhibitor
b. Molecule X is an allosteric inhibitor
c. Molecule X is a cofactor
d. Molecule X has no effect on catalysis

7. Irshath is recording the electrical activity of neurons in a cat when the cat is shown light bars at various angles. Two neurons respond to these light bars in the following manner: What can you infer from the above data?
a. Bar angle does not affect neural response in Neuron1 or 2
b. A bar at 50 degrees elicits no response in either of the two neurons
c. A bar at 20 degrees elicits 50% of the maximal response in Neuron 2
d. For any given angle the difference in response levels of Neuron1 and 2 is a constant.
8. In the northeastern states of India, Yaks are a common species. Additionally, cows are also present as well as hybrids between Yaks and cows. The following figure represents genetic variation at ‘cow’ specific and ‘Yak’ specific genetic loci.Which one of the following statements is true?
a. Most animals are hybrids
b. Most animals either Yaks or cows
c. There are more cows than Yaks
d. All hybrids have the same proportion of Yak versus cow genes in their genome

9. A student conducted an experiment where CO2 and N2 were bubbled through water in beakers A and B respectively. He recorded the pH in each of the solutions every 5 min. What is the most valid conclusion the student could draw from these results:
a. The change in pH was too small to be significant
b. Bubbling CO2 through water makes it more acidic
c. Bubbling N2 through water makes it more acidic
d. Both CO2 and N2 make water more acidic.

10. Experiments were carried out on plants living in different environments to measure the size of leaf stomata. Previous investigations have shown that plants transpire more water when the size of stomata is larger. Which of the graphs best represents a plant living in a dry environment?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
11. Champa is trying to characterize a gene s4, which has been previously implicated in early development in mice. Her attempts to characterize the phenotype failed because embryos from crossed homozygous mutant parents did not survive. However, she was able to get some viable homozygous embryos when heterozygous parents were crossed. Which of the following can explain this observation?
a. s4 is a critical gene for early development and is maternally required*
b. s4 is a critical gene for early development and is an imprinted gene
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above.

12. Alzheimers’ protein-A multimerizes at pH 2 to form aggregates which leads to Alzheimers’ disease. In the brain the pH is always neutral ~7. So what leads to aggregation of A that induces Alzheimers’ in people greater than 60 years of age?
a. Older brains are more acidic.
b. At pH 7, there will be very fast kinetic equilibrium between oligomers and monomers which can change with age to induce aggregation
c. At pH 7, the reaction does proceed to oligomerization but the rate is so low that it takes 60 years to form aggregates
d. Aggregates form during intermittent drops in pH throughout your life.

13. Mutations in two genes x and y in a diploid organism when present togather cause lethality. Which of the following may be inferred about the nature of the gene product?
a. The product of the genes function as an oligomer
b. The two genes fall in the same complementation group
c. None of above
d. The product is a homo-oligomer

14. A gene is transcribed at the maximum rate of k per second, and codes for a transcription factor (TF). This transcription factor inhibits the transcription of its own gene, and this is the only way this gene and TF are regulated. Which of the following graphs is most likely to describe how the steady-state concentration of the TF depends on the value of k?
a. A and C b. C c. B d. D

15. Genes X, Y and Z are located on one chromosome. Cross-over frequency between three genes is:
Cross over  Frequency Gene Pairs
36%                 X-Z
10%                  Y-Z
26%                  X-Y
Which one of the following best represents the gene location on the chromosome?
1. b. Rr 
2. a. Cation exchanger resin
3. c. Humans are descended from the last common ancestor of rats and mice
4. a. Mitochondrial DNA
5. a. 1024
6. a. Molecule X is a competitive inhibitor
7. c. A bar at 20 degrees elicits 50% of the maximal response in Neuron 2
8. b. Most animals either Yaks or cows
9. b. Bubbling CO2 through water makes it more acidic
10. D
11. a. s4 is a critical gene for early development and is maternally required*
12. c. At pH 7, the reaction does proceed to oligomerization but the rate is so low that it takes 60 years to form aggregates
13. a. The product of the genes function as an oligomer
14. b. C
15.b. Z-Y-X
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JGEEBILS test 2016 Notification GS2016 BIOLOGY

Joint Graduate Entrance Examination for Biology and Interdisciplinary Life Sciences (JGEEBILS)
The JGEEBILS test is a shared entrance test for graduate programmes in Biology and interdisciplinary life sciences. The test originated from the TIFR annual entrance test for Biology, which was used by DBS/TIFR as well as NCBS/TIFR. The motivation for this shared test is to reduce the difficulties that students faced with multiple entrance tests, and to reduce the duplication of effort by many institutions in conducting such examinations. JGEEBILS is intended to serve as a common point for students from any science discipline or engineering to start the process to apply for biology graduate programmes around India. Participating institutions contribute questions and logistical support for conducting the examination. This year the examination will be on 13 December 2015. Each participating institution has its own admission process and eligibility criteria. The JGEEBILS test is only one step in this. In general, applicants must apply separately to each participating institution that they are interested in. Please visit the institutional websites for details of these different entrance processes.
Participating Institutions : GS2016 - BIOLOGY
Advanced Centre for Treatment, Research and Education in Cancer (ACTREC), Mumbai (
Indian Institute of Science Education and Research (IISER) : Bhopal (; Kolkata (; Mohali (;  Pune and Thiruvananthapuram (
Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology, Hyderabad (
Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics, Hyderabad (
National Brain Research Centre, Manesar (
National Centre for Biological Sciences, Bengaluru (
National Institute of Immunology, New Delhi  (
National Institute of Science Education and Research, Bhubaneswar (
Institute  for  Stem  Cell  Biology  and  Regenerative Medicine, Bengaluru (
National Centre for Cell Science, Pune (
Department of Biological Sciences, TIFR, Mumbai  (
Regional Centre for Biotechnology, Faridabad (
Saha Institute of Nuclear Physics, Kokata (
Eligibility - Biology:
For Ph.D.: Masters in Basic Science or Bachelors in Applied Science.  These include, M.Sc.(Ag.), B.Tech., B.E., B.V.Sc., B.Pharma. (4 years course), MBBS, BDS, M.Pharma. Candidates will be short-listed for interview based on written test marks, CV and Scientific Writeup. For I-Ph.D./M.Sc.: Bachelors in any Basic Science.
For M.Sc. Wildlife Biology & Conservation : Indian nationals who have a Bachelor’s degree in any discipline (with a minimum of 50% in core subjects),
less than 35 years of age as on July 1, 2015 and a strong interest in wildlife research and conservation. Graduate nationals of Central, South and Southeast
Asian countries, with similar qualifications, are also eligible to apply.
For Ph.D. Program in TCIS: M.Sc. in Physics, Chemistry or Biology
Important Dates:
Nationwide Entrance Examination: Sunday, December 13, 2015
Last date for application: Online payment link will be active upto DDs sent by post/courier will be accepted upto
Hall Ticket download link will be active from :  November 10, 2015
Results of the Nationwide Entrance Examination (shortlist for interviews) : January 28, 2016
Application Procedure
Application Procedure:
Students can apply online.  Please follow appropriate link on this website for filling up the application form.  Read the instructions carefully before you start filling up the online application form.  PLEASE DO NOT MAKE MULTIPLE REGISTRATIONS FOR THE SAME SUBJECT.
Manual Applications: Students from remote areas who do not have access to internet may apply manually.   They may send a request for application form (without DD) along with a self-addressed stamped (Rs 20/-) envelope (size 25cm x 17cm) superscribed "GS-2016 (Subject)" to :
For Biology:
Admissions Section
National Centre for Biological Sciences
UAS-GKVK Campus, Bellary Road,
Bangalore 560065.
Application Fee & Payment:
Application Fee (Non-Refundable):
Male Candidates : Rs 500/- for online applications and Rs 550/- for manual applications.  Rs 800/- for taking the test as walk-in candidate. 
Female Candidates : Rs 100/- for online and manual applications.  Rs 200/- for taking the test as walk-in candidate.
Application fee can be paid online through internet banking or by Debit/Credit Card or by sending Demand Draft.  Online Payment: After the online payment transaction is successful, please login to your account on our website by using your reference code as your user id and check the payment status of your application.    Normally, online payments are received within 2 working days and a auto email is sent by the system acknowledging the payment.  If your transaction has been successful and your account has been debited and you do not receive the acknowledgement email within 7 days, neither your payment status is updated in your account, you may write to the email ids as given in "Contact Info" section.
Demand Draft:
Biology: DD should be drawn on State Bank of India in favour of "National Centre for Biological Science" payable at Bangalore. 
DDs may be sent by speed post/courier with name, reference code and telephone number written behind it.
Online payment link will be active upto October 14, 2015.
DDs sent by post/courier will be accepted upto October 14, 2015.

Previous Question Paper Biology
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CSIR UGC NET JRF Life Sciences Exam Notification 2015 December

CSIR will hold   the Joint CSIR-UGC Test on 20th December, 2015 for determining the eligibility of the Indian National  candidates for the award of Junior Research Fellowships (JRF) and for determining eligibility for appointment of  Lecturers (NET) in certain subject areas falling under the faculty of Science & Technology. The award of Junior Research  Fellowship (JRF) to the successful eligible candidates will depend on their finding admission/placement in a university/  national laboratory/ institution of higher learning and research, as applicable.
Exam Date: CSIR-UGC JRF( Junior Research Fellowship )And NET (Eligibility for Lectureship) : 20th December, 2015.
Important Dates:
csir net exam date

Extended dates
Age Limit & Relaxation:
  • For Junior Research Fellowships  (JRF):Maximum 28 years as on 01-07-2015 (upper age limit may be relaxed up to 5 years in case of candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC, Physically handicapped/Visually handicapped and female applicants).
  • For LS (NET): No upper age limit.
Educational Qualification:
  • BS-4 years program/BE/BTech/BPharma/MBBS/Integrated BS-MS/MSc or equivalent degree with at least 55% marks for general and OBC (50% for SC/ST candidates, physically and Visually Handicapped candidates).
  • Candidates enrolled for M.Sc or having completed 10+2+3 years of the above qualifying examination are also eligible to apply in the above subject under the Result Awaited (RA) category on the condition that they complete the qualifying degree with requisite percentage of marks within the validity period of two years to
    avail the fellowship from the effective date of award.
    Such candidates will have to submit the attestation format (Given at the reverse of the application form) duly certified by the Head of the Department/Institute from where the candidate is appearing or has appeared.
  • BSc (Hons) or equivalent degree holders or students enrolled in Integrated MS-PhD program with at least 55% marks for general and OBC candidates; 50% marks for SC/ST candidates, physically and visually handicapped candidates are also eligible to apply.Candidates with bachelor’s degree, whether Science, engineering or any other discipline, will be eligible for fellowship only after getting registered/enrolled for PhD/Integrated PhD program within the validity period of two years.
  • The eligibility for lectureship of NET qualified candidates will be subject to fulfilling the criteria laid down by UGC. PhD degree holders who have passed Master’s degree prior to 19th September 1991, with at least 50% marks are eligible to apply for Lectureship only.
    The question paper shall be divided into three parts, (A, B & C) as per syllabus & Scheme of Exam.
    Part 'A' shall be common to all subjects including Engineering Sciences. This part shall contain questions pertaining to General Aptitude with emphasis on logical reasoning, graphical analysis, analytical and numerical ability, quantitative comparison, series formation, puzzles etc.
    Part 'B' shall contain subject-related conventional Multiple Choice questions (MCQs), generally covering the topics given in the syllabus.
    Part 'C' shall contain higher value questions that may test the candidate's knowledge of scientific concepts and/or application of the scientific concepts. The questions shall be of analytical nature where a candidate is expected to apply the scientific knowledge to arrive at the solution to the given scientific problem.
    Negative marking for wrong answers, wherever required, shall be applicable as per subject wise scheme of Exam.
    Examination fee:
    examination fee

    Examination Centres: Bangalore, Bhavnagar, Bhopal, Bhubaneshwar, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cochin, Delhi, Guntur, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Imphal, Jammu, Jamshedpur, Karaikudi, Kolkata, Lucknow, Nagpur, Pilani, Pune, Raipur, Roorkee, Srinagar, Thiruvananthapuram, Udaipur and Varanasi.
    Exam Cut-off 2015 June
    csir exam Exam Cut-off 2015 June
    Exam Result& Validity period of fellowship:
    The final result of this Single MCQ test may be declared sometime in the month of March/April, 2016 and fellowship to successful candidates will be effective from 1 st July, 2016 with the validity period of 2 years for joining the fellowship under CSIR Scheme.
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