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ICAR NET ARS Practice Test Agronomy Quiz

The word agronomy has been derived from two  greek words, agros- field and nomos- to manage. Literally agronomy means the art of managing field. Agronomy is that branch of agricultural science , which deals with the management of field to provide favorable environment to the crop for higher productivity in terms of quantity and quality both. 
ICAR NET ARS Practice Test
1. International Institute of Tropical Agriculture is situated at
India
Japan
Nigeria
none of these
2. ICARISAT is located at
India
Indonesia
Mexico
China
3. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) has its headquarters in
Rome
Tokyo
Geneva
Paris
4. Green revolution has been most successful in
wheat and potato
wheat and rice
tea and coffee
rice and barley
5. World environmental day celebrated in
5th june
15th june
15th July
5th July
6. AGMARK indicates
quality and puirty
quality
quantity
purity
7. India is divided into following agroclimatic zone?
15
18
21
22
8. CIMAP, Lucknow is mainly working on
cereal crops
sugar crops
fruits and vegetables
medicinal and aromatic crops
9. The tree acceptable for paper industries is
Khejri
Juliffora
Eucalyptus
Rohida
10. Highest total fertilizer consumption is in the state?
Uttar Pradesh
Punjab
Haryana
Tamil nadu
Score =
Correct answers:
Learn more: MCQ on Agronomy
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ARS 2017 and NET 2018 Notification Important Dates Previous Question Paper

The Agricultural Scientists Recruitment Board (ASRB) will hold a combined ARS 2017 (Preliminary) and NET (I)-2018 Examination during 06.04.2018 to 13.04.2018 in Online mode at 23 Centres across India in a staggered slot-wise examination format as per the Rules and Scheme of Examination indicated in this notification. The ARS-2017 (Mains) Examination will be conducted on 24.06.2018. Candidates are advised to read the notification carefully before filling the Online Application Form.
The ARS (Preliminary) Examination is a qualifying examination and its marks will not be carried forward for determining final merit of the candidates. All those candidates desirous of appearing for ARS Examination are required to take both the Preliminary and Mains Examination and viva-voce. Only those candidates who qualify the ARS 2017 (Preliminary) Examination as per standards given in Appendix-VII will be eligible to appear in the ARS-2017 (Mains) Examination, further restricted to 15 candidates for one vacancy. 
Candidates declared successful in ARS-2017 (Mains) Examination and viva-voce will be recommended for appointment as Scientists in Agricultural Research Service (ARS) of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in the Pay Band-III of 15,600-39,100 plus Research Grade Pay of  6,000/-. 
Age limit:
For ARS-2017 : A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years but not have attained the age of 32 years as on 01.01.2018. Age relaxation is admissible to the various categories as per Rule 2 of the Rules of the Examination as given in APPENDIX –IV. 
 For NET (I)-2018:  A candidate must have attained the age of 21 years as on 01.01.2018. There is no upper age limit for the National Eligibility Test. 

Number of Attempts:
For ARS - 2017 (a) The number of attempts for appearing in the Agricultural Research Service Examination will be limited to SIX for Unreserved category candidates (whether M.Sc./Ph.D.) including the in-service candidates of I.C.A.R. However, this restriction will not apply to SC and ST candidates who are otherwise eligible. The number of attempts for Other Backward Classes category and Divyang (belonging to General/OBC category) candidates will be NINE. 

For NET (I) - 2018 There is no restriction on number of attempts for appearing in the National Eligibility Test.  
How to apply:- A candidate seeking admission to the Examination must apply online in the prescribed Application Form available on the website: http://www.asrb.org.in. Important Instructions to the candidates for filling online application are given in Annexure-I. A candidate must read the provisions, contained in this Notification for Combined ARS-2017 and NET (I)-2018 Examination carefully and abide by the same. 
A candidate must fulfil all the conditions of eligibility regarding age limits, educational qualifications, etc. prescribed for admission to the examination. The online Application process will be opened from 1000 Hrs on 06.02.2018 till 1700 Hrs on 02.03.2018 after which the link will automatically get disabled. 
The candidates are not required to attach copy of any of the documents /certificates in support of their candidature at the time of submission of online application. The candidates in their own interest must satisfy themselves about their eligibility for the examination. In the event of any ineligibility being detected by the Board at any stage, including after declaration of result, their candidature shall be cancelled and they shall be liable for legal action. Due care should be taken by the candidates to fill up their application form. No request for change in any field i.e., Centre of Examination, Discipline, Name, Father’s Name, Date of Birth, Gender, E-mail Id, Mobile No., Phone No., Category, Medium of Examination etc. will be considered under any circumstances except bonafide spelling mistakes etc. Candidates are, therefore, advised to be very careful while filling up their application forms. 
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ds or ssDNA has more absorbance? Double stranded and Single stranded DNA UV absorbance and Hyperchromic effect

ds or ss DNA has more absorbance?
  • The absorbance of isolated nucleotides is > ss RNA or ss DNA>ds DNA.
  • The increase in absorbance of ss DNA over ds DNA is termed as hyperchromic effect. In other words, dsDNA is hypochromic with respect to ss DNA. Hyperchromic effect is due to the presence of exposed nitrogenous bases in ss DNA.  See the graph below to get a clear picture.
Hyperchromic and hypochromic effect dsDNA vs ssDNA absorbance graph

Definition: Hyperchromic Shift or Effect 

  • The phenomenon of increased UV absorbance by denatured DNA is known as the hyperchromic shift. 
  • The purine and pyrimidine bases in DNA strongly absorb ultraviolet light. Double-stranded DNA absorbs less strongly than denatured DNA due to the stacking interactions between the bases. On denaturation, the bases are exposed thereby showing increased absorbance.
  • This is the order of UV absorbance from high to low free nucleotides->ssDNA->dsDNA
  • The phenomenon of decreased UV absorbance by ds native DNA compared to ss denatured DNA is known as hypochromic effect
                 *ss=single stranded, ds=double stranded
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Biotechnology Practice Test - Mock test on Genetic Engineering and Recombinant DNA technology

biotechnology mock test

1. The process which can be used to bring two genetically different cells together for common desirable characters?
Polymerase Chain Reaction
Protoplast fusion
Hybridisation
None of these
2. The Biolistic PDS 1000 is an
antibiotics drug
instrument used to transfer DNA to cell
important cell fusion techique
gene therapy operation technique
3. Maximum UV absorbance takes place at
250 nm
260 nm
270 nm
300 nm
4. Purines and Pyrimidines are cleaved by
Dimethyl sulphate
Hydrazine
Piperazine
Dimethyl sulphate and Hydrazine respectively
5. DNA staining is done by
Crystal violet
Gemsa staining
Methylene blue
Fulgen staining
6. Isoelectric focussing method works on the principle of
Number of amino acids
coagulation capacity of protein molecules
Mass of the protein molecules
Electrophoretic separation based on relative content of acidic and basic residues
7. Precipitin reaction occures when
Antigen coagulates in the living system
Antibodies gets coagulated
Antigen and Antibody meet
Antigen and antibodies lose their function
8. DNA sequencing is done by
Maxam Gilbert
Sanger dideoxy method
Both Maxam Gilbert and Sanger dideoxy method
none of these
9. The enzyme used in footprinting technique?
Permease
RNA polymerase
DNA ligase
DNA polymerase
10. DNA polymerase II used in PCR is concerned with
Initiation of DNA synthesis
Termination of DNA synthesis
Inhibition of Tag polymerase
Proof reading of DNA synthesized by Tag polymerase
Score =
Correct answers:
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GATE Mock test - Biochemistry Practice Test

GATE Mock test - Biochemistry Practice Test

1. During an enzyme catalysed reaction, the equilibrium constant
increases
decreses
remains unchanged
can increase or decrease, depending on the enzyme
2. Which one of the following proteases does NOT cleave on the carboxyl side of any Arginine residue in a protein?
Trypsin
Thrombin
Proteinase K
Chymotrypsin
3. The receptor for epinephrine is a
Tyrosine kinase receptor
Serine threonine kinase receptor
G protein coupled receptor
Ligand activated transcription factor
4. Choose the option with two reducing sugars?
Lactose and Maltose
Trehalose and Sucrose
Maltose and Trehalose
Sucrose and Lactose
5. The affinity of an antibody can be determined quantitatively by
MALDI TOF MS
Isoelectric focusing
SDS PAGE
Equilibrium dialysis
6. Which one of the following molecules is an allosteric activator of phosphofructokinase -1?
Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
Fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate
Glucose 6 phosphate
Citrate
7. Which one of the following statements is TRUE when a cell is kept in a hypotonic solution?
water moves out of the cell
size of the cell remains same
size of the cell increases
No movement of water takes place
8. Which one of the following amino acids has a higher propensity for cis peptide bond formation?
Histidine
Proline
Glycine
Cysteine
9. The length of an alpha helix composed of 36 amino acids residues is
10 Ao
54 Ao
27 Ao
360 Ao
10. The terminal electron acceptor during mitochondrial respiration is
Oxygen
FAD+
NAD+
ATP
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GATE Mock Test on Food Technology Practice Test

GATE Mock Test on Food Technology Practice Test

1. The enzyme that hydrolyzes starch to maltose is
alpha amylase
beta amylase
glucoamylase
cyclodextrin glucanotranferase
2. What is the percent relative humidity at which both the dry bulb and wet bulb thermometers would record equal temperatures?
0
10
50
100
3. Among the following animal foods, the fat content is least in
Beef
Chicken meat
Pork
Lamb flesh
4. Which one of the following is NOT enriched in endosperm during parboiling of paddy?
Thiamine
Niacin
Iron
Fat
5. Standard pasteurization protocol for milk is adequate for destroying?
Bacillus cereus
Listeria monocytogenes
Clostridium sporogenes
Listeria monocytogenes
6. Which one of the following is NOT a component of an evaporator?
Heat exchanger
Vaccum separator
Condensor
Cyclone separator
7. Prolonged fermentation of cocoa seeds lead to "off taste" due to the release of
glucose
short chain fatty acids
carbon dioxide
phospholipids
8. Green tea is considered to be a more healthy option than black tea because it
has high content of polyphenols
is richer in thearubigin
has no microbial load
doe not require any sweetener during tea preparation
9. How many fold would the g number of a centrifuge increase by doubling both the spinning speed and bowl diameter?
2
4
8
16
10. The gradual decrease in viscosity of tomato paste during storage can be prevented by quickly heating it to 82 degree Celsius, because
water soluble pectin interacts with calcium
hemicellulose prevents decrease in visocity
lignin prevents decrease in viscosity
pectin methyl esterase is inactivated
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GATE Biotechnology Life Sciences Mock Test - Zoology Practice Test

GATE Biotechnology Life Sciences Mock Test - Zoology Practice Test

1. Acorn worms (Saccoglassus sp)belong to which ONE of the following Phyla?
Platyhelminthes
Achelminthes
Hemichordata (Chordata)
Annelida
2. A population of Bees develops resistance to pesticides and the trait gets fixed within a few generations. This is an example of
macroevolution
microevolution
stabilizing selection
disruptive selection
3. The nature of the polymorphic DNA fragment used for mapping is
dominant
recessive
partial dominant
codominant
4. The sex of a Drosophila melangogaster, which has 4 copies of X chromosomes and 4 sets of autosomes will be
female
male
metafemale
metamale
5. When cells are treated with cyanide, which ONE of the following organelles will have the highest level of cyanide inside?
Mitochondria
Peroxisomes
Lysosomes
Endoplasmic reticulum
6. Which one of the following is often a life threatening systemic inflammatory response
Tuberculosis
Septic shock
Hypertension
Lupus erythematosus
7. During the gastrulation stage of amphibian development, ectoderm formation takes place by the expansion of epthelial cell sheet over mesodermal cells. This type of cell movement is termed as
ingression
epiboly
involution
delamination
8. Which one of the following organs is incorrectly paired with its function?
Intestinal villi- Absorption
Epiglottis- Closure of larynx
Gall bladder - Carbohydrate digestion
Parietal cells - Hydrochloric acid
9. Which one of the following life cycle stages of Plasmodium falciparum is infectious?
Sporozoite
Merozoite
Cryptozoite
Trophozoite
10. Which one of the following is a function of intermediate filaments?
Cytoplasmic streaming
Anchorage of the nucleus
Formation of tight junctions
Chromosome movement during the cell division
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GATE Biotechnology / Life Sciences Mock Test - Microbiology

GATE mock test Microbiology

1. Which one of the following is the most appropriate technique to determine the relatedness of two bacterial species.
Dna hybridisation
Doubling time measurement
plasmid profiling
biochemical chracterization
2. Which one of the following phages undergoes non integrative lysogenic phase?
P1
T7
M13
Lambda
3. Which one of the following is Not a part of human microbiome?
Bacteroides fragilis
Streptococcus suis
Lactobacillus casei
Propionibacterium acnes
4. Resident macrophages of --- are called Kupffer cells.
Brain
liver
lung
kidney
5. The enzyme responsible for generation of hypochloroous ions during phagocytosis is
NADPH oxidase
catalase
superoxide dismutase
myeloperoxidase
6. Teichoic acid is composed of repetitive units of
glucose
glycerol
N acetyl glucosamine
Keto deoxy octanoic acid
7. Biofilm produced by bacteria is detected by
Saffranin
Congo red
Basic fuchsin
Malachite green
8. The precursor for the synthesis of aromatic aminoacids is
oxaloacetate
pyruvate
alpha ketoglutarate
phosphoenolpyruvate
9. Of the following, most effective method to kill bacterial endospores is
Moist heat sterilization
UV irradiation
filtration
pasteurization
10. The class of enzymes, which catalyze addition of groups to double bonds and non hydrolytic removal of chemical groups, is
lyase
transferase
hydrolase
oxidoreductase
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Correct answers:
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